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MCQ Business Studies CUET | Common University Entrance Exam 

MCQ of Nature and Significance of Management

Q1. …… refers to Completing the job on time, no matters whatever the cost .

  1. Efficiency
  2. Effectiveness
  3. Training
  4. Organising

Answer : Effectiveness

Q2.  …… refers to completing the job in the cost effective manner.

  1. Efficiency
  2. Effectiveness
  3. Training
  4. Organising

Answer: Efficiency

Q3. Essential features of Management dose not involve :

  1. Management is goal – oriented process
  2. Management is All – pervasive
  3. Management is a group activity
  4. Management is a static function

Answer : Management is a static function

Q4. Management is all-pervasive means :

  1. It is not necessary at all
  2. It is needed only in economic activities
  3. It is needed at every place, in every activity and at every level
  4. None of these

Answer: It is needed at every place, in every activity and at every level

Q5.  …… refers to those end points for the attainment of which all the activities of an organisation are undertaken

  1.  Policies
  2. Rules
  3. Objectives
  4. Strategy

Answer: Objectives

Q6.  …… objectives refers to the objectives to be determined with respect to the employees of the organisation.

  1. Organisational
  2. Personal
  3. Social
  4. Both b and c

Answer: Personal

Q7. Anything – management =

  1. Success
  2. Failure
  3. Profit of business
  4. Investment

Answer : Failure

Q8. Which of the following highlights importance of management?

  1. Helps in achieving group goals
  2. Increases efficiency
  3. Avoid personal objectives
  4. Both a and b

Answer : Both a and b

Q9. … refers to a systematic body of knowledge that explains certain general truths.

  1. Science
  2. Art
  3. Profession
  4. Management

Answer : Science

Q10. Major characteristics of science doesn’t involve :

  1. Existence of theoretical knowledge
  2. Universal validity
  3. Principles based on experimentation
  4. Systemic body of knowledge

Answer: Existence of theoretical knowledge

Q11.  Major characteristics of art involve :

  1. Existence of theoretical knowledge
  2. Universal validity
  3. Principles based on experimentation
  4. Systemic body of knowledge

Answer: Existence of theoretical knowledge

 Q12. …… refers to the practical application of existing knowledge skillfully.

  1. Science
  2. Art
  3. Profession
  4. Management

Answer : Art

Q13. Anything – management= nothing. It tells about 

  1. Limitation of management
  2. Importance of management
  3. Importance of organisation
  4. None of these

Answer : Importance of management

Q14. At …… level of management, the managers are responsible for implementing and controlling the plans and strategies of the organisation.

  1. Top
  2. Middle
  3. Lower
  4. Every

Answer : Middle

Q15. …… refers to the process which provides the requisite amount, quality, timing and sequence of efforts and ensures that planned objectives are achieved with a minimum of conflict.

  1. Planning
  2. Organising
  3. Controlling
  4. Coordination

Answer : Coordination

Q16. Management is not called as perfect science because :

  1. It is not so necessary at all
  2. It is an intangible force
  3. It is related with human being
  4. It is dynamic

Answer: It is related with human being

Q17. …… objective is trying to achieved, when the management of Verma Ltd. offers employment to meet the objectives of the firm.

  1. Social
  2. Personal
  3. Organisational
  4. All of these

Answer : Social

Q18. At which level of management was your grandfather working, if he had retired as the director of a manufacturing company?

  1. Top level of management
  2. Middle level of management
  3. Lower level of management
  4. None of these

Answer : Top level of management

Q19. Name the type of science to which management is related.

  1. Perfect science
  2. Soft science
  3. Applied science
  4. Artificial science

Answer: Applied science

Q20. …… refers to bringing the actual results closer to the desired results

  1. Planning
  2. Organising
  3. Controlling
  4. Coordination

Answer: Controlling

Q21. Influencing others in such a manner to do what the leader wants them to do is called :

  1. Communication
  2. Leadership
  3. Motivation
  4. Supervision

Answer: Leadership

Q22.  …… refers to translating work in terms of goals to be achieved and assigning the resources to achieve them.

  1. Management of people
  2. Management of work
  3. Management of operations
  4. Management as goal – oriented process

Answer: Management of work

Q23.  To save environment from getting polluted comes under :

  1. Organisational objectives
  2. Personal objectives
  3. Social objectives
  4. Both b and c

Answer : Social objectives

Q24. Main characteristics of profession include 

  1. Service motive
  2. Restricted entry
  3. Professional association
  4. All of these

Answer : All of these

Q25. Appointing employees and motivates them is the main function of :

  1. Top – level Management
  2. Middle – level management
  3. Supervisory level management
  4. All levels of management

Answer : Middle-level management

Q26. Operational management performs the function of

  1. Preparing organisational set up
  2. Determining objectives
  3. Creating cooperation
  4. Ensuring proper working environment

Answer : Ensuring proper working environment

Q27. The work of “recruitment” is done under …… process.

  1. Planning
  2. Organising
  3. Staffing
  4. Directing

Answer : Staffing

Q28. The deviations in the work are analysed under … process.

  1. Organising
  2. Staffing
  3. Controlling
  4. Directing

Answer : Controlling

Q29.  …… refers to the desire to work collectively. It originates effortlessly

  1. Controlling
  2. Coordination
  3. Cooperation
  4. Motivation

Answer : Cooperation

Q30. The coordination is required at which level of management?

  1. At lower level management
  2. At top level management
  3. At middle level management
  4. At all the three level of management

Answer: At all the three level of management

Q31. Simran Pvt. Ltd. uses environment-friendly techniques of production.

Name the objective the company strives to attain?

  1. Social objective
  2. Personal objective
  3. Organisational objective
  4. both a and b

Answer : Social objective

Q32.  Managerial members include

  1. Chief Executive Officer
  2. Supervisors
  3. Workers
  4. Both a and b

Answer : Both a and b

Q33. Non-managerial members include

  1. Chief Executive Officer
  2. Supervisors
  3. Workers
  4. Both a and b

Answer: Workers

Q34. Effectiveness relates to

  1. Doing the right task
  2. Completing activities
  3. Achieving goals
  4. All of the above

Answer: All of the above

Q35. Efficiency is concerned with

  1. Doing the right thing
  2. Doing things right
  3. Achieving end results
  4. None of the above

Answer: Doing things right

Q36. Which of the following is correct sequence of process of management?

  1. Organising, planning, staffing, directing, controlling
  2. Planning, organising, controlling, staffing, directing
  3. Planning, directing, organising , staffing, controlling
  4. Planning, organising, staffing, directing, controlling

Answer: Planning, organising, staffing, directing, controlling

Q37. The activities of supervision, communication, leadership, motivation comes under …… process of management.

  1. Planning
  2. Organising
  3. Directing
  4. Controlling

Answer: Directing

Q38. Management is a/an …… force.

  1. Intangible
  2. Tangible
  3. Non – existent
  4. None of these

Answer : An intangible

Q39. Being …… a manager always wants to achieve objectives.

  1. Efficient
  2. Effective
  3. Efficient and effective
  4. None of these

Answer : Efficient and effective

Q40. Management is …… type of power.

  1. Separate
  2. Collective
  3. Visible
  4. Invisible

Answer : Invisible

MCQ of Principles of Management

Q1. Principles of management means :
a. Process of management i.e., planning, organising, staffing, directing, controlling
b. Importance of management process for decision making
c. general guidelines for decision making and behavior of managers
d. general statements which are decided for guidance of employees while taking decision
Answer: general guidelines for decision making and behavior of managers

Q2. Principles of management are necessary for :
a. decision making
b. Behavior of managers
c. Analysing deviations
d. Both a and b
Answer: Both a and b

Q3. Principles of management guide :
a. the employees
b. the trainees
c. the manager
d. the owner
Answer : The manager

Q4. …… is a fundamental statement or truth providing a guide to the thought or action.
a. Policy
b. Principle
c. Rule
d. Strategy
Answer : Principle

Q5. …… refers to that truth which is equally applicable in all spheres (Both business and non-business).
a. Scientific decision
b. Management decision
c. Principles
d. Universality
Answer : Universality

Q6. Which of the following briefs the nature of principles of management?
a. Universal applicability
b. General guidelines
c. Contingent
d. All of these
Answer : All of these

Q7. Principles of management establish relationship between :
a. Managers and workers
b. Supervisor and subordinate
c. Cause and effect
d. Business and entrepreneur
Answer : Cause and effect

Q8. Principles of management are :
a. Permanent
b. Contingent
c. Stable
d. Unreal / fake
Answer: Contingent

Q9. Fourteen principles of management has been described by
a. Frederick Winslow Taylor
b. Henry Fayol
c. Jack Welch
d. John C. Maxwell
Answer: Henry Fayol

Q10. Henry Fayol describes fourteen principles of management in his book
a. The One Minute Manager
b. Leaders Eat Last
c. General and industrial management
d. None of these
Answer : General and Industrial Management

Q11.Advantages of specialisation are obtained by the principle of
a. Authority and responsibility
b. Discipline
c. Unity of command
d. Division of work
Answer : Division of work

Q12. Positive effect of the principle of Authority and Responsibility includes
a. Easy to fix responsibility
b. Efficiency of the subordinate increase
c. Efficiency of the superior increase
d. Confidence of the employees increase
Answer: Confidence of the employees increase

Q13. An atmosphere of doubt and suspicion may be created by …… principle of management
a. Division of work
b. Discipline
c. Stability of personnel
d. Equity
Answer : Discipline

Q14. According to the principle of …… an individual employee should receive orders from only one superior at a time and that employee should be answerable only to the superior.
a. Unity of direction
b. Stability of personnel
c. Equity
d. Unity of command
Answer: Unity of command

Q15. Unity of direction means
a. there should be stability of tenure of the employees so that the work continues efficiently
b. a manager should continuously make efforts to develop a team spirit among the subordinates
c. there should be one head and one plan for a group of activities having the same objective.
d. None of these
Answer : There should be one head and one plan for a group of activities having the same objective.

Q16. According to which principle of management, the employees should be paid fair remuneration, which should give them at least a reasonable standard of living?
a. Espirit de corps
b. Equity
c. Order
d. Remuneration to employees
Answer: Remuneration to employees

Q17. According to the principle of Espirit de corps, a manager should use word
Instead of ‘I’ :
a. You
b. They
c. We
d. No one
Answer : We

Q18. Which of the following can be considered as violating Effect of the principle Espirit de corps?
a. Good workers leave company
b. Misuse of resources
c. Increase in jealousy
d. Difficulty in achieving objective
Answer: Difficulty in achieving objective

Q19. According to which principle of management, there is possibility in reduction of training expenses ?
a. Unity of direction
b. Stability of personnel
c. Equity
d. Unity of command
Answer : Stability of personnel

Q20. Scalar chain refers to a formal line of …… and …… which moves from highest to the lowest ranks in a straight line.
a. Transport and communication
b. Decentralization and centralization
c. Authority and communication
d. None of these
Answer : Authority and communication

Q21. … is the exception of the principle of scalar chain.
a. Scientific management
b. Single use plan
c. Gang plank
d. Espirit de corps
Answer: Gang plank

Q22. Scientific management is a new thinking on management propounded by
a. Frederick Winslow Taylor
b. Henry Fayol
c. Jack Welch
d. John C. Maxwell
Answer : Frederick Winslow Taylor

Q23. Scientific management means :
a. general guidelines for decision making and behavior of managers
b. general statements which are decided for guidance of employees while taking decision
c. management which thinks that by scientifically analysing work, it would hinders the growth of business
d. management which thinks that by scientifically analysing work, it would be possible to find ‘one best way ‘ to do it.
Answer : Management which thinks that by scientifically analysing work, it would be possible to find ‘one best way ‘ to do it.

Q24. Which one of the following is essential feature of scientific management?
a. General guidelines
b. Separate managerial function
c. Dynamic function
d. Systemic approach and brings complete mental change
Answer : Systemic approach and brings complete mental change

Q25. Functional Foremanship is totally based on the principle of
a. Authority and responsibility
b. Discipline
c. Specialisation
d. Equity
Answer : Specialisation

Q26. Taylor has suggested the division of work of factory manager into two sub departments :
a. Production department and sales department
b. Planning department and advertising department
c. Planning department and marketing department
d. Planning department and production department
Answer : Planning Department and Production Department

Q27. …is known as gang boss.
a. Group members
b. Group leader
c. Director
d. Manager
Answer : Group Leader

Q28. What is the main function of gang boss?
a. to ensure that both the workers and the machines are fit enough for production
b. to keep machines and tools in working condition
c. to inspects the things produced and compares their quality with the standards prescribed for them
d. to ensure that all the workers are performing their job at the required or expected speed.
Answer : To ensure that both the workers and the machines are fit enough for production

Q29. What is the main function of speed boss ?
a. to ensure that both the workers and the machines are fit enough for production
b. to keep machines and tools in working condition
c. to inspects the things produced and compares their quality with the standards prescribed for them
d. to ensure that all the workers are performing their job at the required or expected speed.
Answer : To ensure that all the workers are performing their job at the required or expected speed.

Q30. What is the main function of Repair boss?
a. to ensure that both the workers and the machines are fit enough for production
b. to keep machines and tools in working condition
c. to inspects the things produced and compares their quality with the standards prescribed for them
d. to ensure that all the workers are performing their job at the required or expected speed
Answer : To keep machines and tools in working condition

Q31. What is the main function of Inspector ?
a. to ensure that both the workers and the machines are fit enough for production
b. to keep machines and tools in working condition
c. to inspect the things produced and compares their quality with the standards prescribed for them
d. to ensure that all the workers are performing their job at the required or expected speed
Answer: To inspect the things produced and compares their quality with the standards prescribed for them

Q32. Setting standards for different activities, after due deliberation is known as…
a. Planning
b. Organising
c. Standardisation
d. Simplification
Answer : Standardisation

Q33. … means putting an end to the unnecessary types, qualities, sizes/weights etc.
a. Planning
b. Organising
c. Standardisation
d. Simplification
Answer : Simplification

Q34. To reduce a given line of product to fixed types, sizes and characteristics and ensure quality standards is the main objective of
a. Planning
b. Organising
c. Standardisation
d. Simplification
Answer : Standardisation

Q35. Effecting economy in the use of machines and affecting economy in the staff is the main objective of
a. Planning
b. Organising
c. Standardisation
d. Simplification
Answer : Simplification

Q36. Process chart and operation research techniques are used to conduct
a. Method study
b. Motion study
c. Time study
d. Fatigue study
Answer : Method study

Q37. The main objective of motion study is to
a. maintain the efficiency level of workers
b. decide about the suitable incentive plan
c. eliminate the unnecessary motions
d. find out one best way of doing the job
Answer : Eliminate the unnecessary motions

Q38. Differential wage system refers to the technique of scientific management which differentiate between… and… workers.
a. Good and bad
b. Efficient and inefficient
c. Monthly paid and daily paid
d. High level and lower level
Answer : Efficient and inefficient

Q39. … refers to the change in the attitude of management and workers towards one another from competition to cooperation.
a. Scientific management
b. Fatigue study
c. mental revolution
d. Differential piece rate
Answer : Mental Revolution

Q40. Who specifies the sequence of completing a particular work?
a. Instruction card clerk
b. Route clerk
c. Time and cost clerk
d. Discipline officer
Answer : Route clerk

MCQ of Business Environment

Q1. …… means the sum total of those factors which influence the business and over which the business has no control.
a. Business ethics
b. Business environment
c. Marketing management
d. None of these
Answer : Business Environment

Q2. …… refers to the negative changes that occurred in the business environment and hindered the performance of an organisation
a. Strength
b. Weakness
c. Opportunities
d. Threats
Answer : Threats

Q3. …… refers to the positive changes that occurred in the business environment and helped the organisation to improve its performance.
a. Strength
b. Weakness
c. Opportunities
d. Threats
Answer : Opportunities

Q4. Which is not the feature of business environment?
a. Totality of external forces
b. Well defined body of knowledge
c. Specific and general forces
d. Dynamic nature
Answer: Well Defined Body of Knowledge

Q5. Which of the following highlights the importance of business environment?
a. First mover advantage
b. Assisting in planning and policy formulation
c. Warning signal
d. All of these
Answer: All of these

Q6. Two components of business environment are :
a. Business and profession
b. Micro environment and macro environment
c. General environment and operating environment
d. Internal environment and external environment
Answer : Internal Environment and External Environment

Q7. …… refers to those factors which influence the business and are under control of the business.
a. Political environment
b. Social environment
c. Internal environment
d. External environment
Answer : Internal Environment

Q8. Internal factors includes 
a. Policies of business
b. Customers
c. Production capacity
d. Both a and c
Answer : Both a and c

Q9. …… refers to those factors which influence the business, exist outside the business and are out of control of the business.
a. Political environment
b. Social environment
c. Internal environment
d. External environment
Answer: External Environment

Q10. External environment can be divided into
a. Micro environment and mini environment
b. Micro environment and Macro environment
c. Economic environment and social environment
d. None of these
Answer : Micro environment and Macro environment

Q11. What do you mean by micro environment?
a. It refers to negative changes that occurred in the business environment and hindered the performance of an organisation.
b. It refers to all those external factors which are closely related to business and influence each industrial unit differently
c. It refers to those factors which influence the business, exist outside the business and are out of control of the business
d. It refers to all those external factors which have a distant relation with business and influence all business units almost in the same way
Answer : It refers to all those external factors which are closely related to business and influence each industrial unit differently

Q12. What do you mean by macro environment ?
a. It refers to negative changes that occurred in the business environment and hindered the performance of an organisation
b. It refers to all those external factors which are closely related to business and influence each industrial unit differently
c. It refers to those factors which influence the business, exist outside the business and are out of control of the business
d. It refers to all those external factors which have a distant relation with business and influence all business units almost in the same way
Answer : It refers to all those external factors which have a distant relation with business and influence all business units almost in the same way

Q13. Micro environment is also called
a. Operating environment
b. Internal environment
c. General environment
d. Political environment
Answer : Operating Environment

Q14. Macro environment is also called
a. Operating environment
b. Internal environment
c. General environment
d. Political environment
Answer: General Environment

Q15. Micro environment consists of the following factors
a. Public
b. Export import policies
c. Competitors
d. Both a and c
Answer : Both a and c

Q16. …… refers to social practices that have lasted for decades, such as, Diwali, Id, Christmas etc.
a. Values
b. Social trends
c. Fashion
d. Traditions
Answer : Traditions

Q17. …… refers to moral principles prevailing in the society, such as freedom, equality etc.
a. Values
b. Social trends
c. Fashion
d. Traditions
Answer : Values

Q18. High inflation rate increases the cost of business, is an impact of …… environment.
a. Economic
b. Social
c. Political
d. Technological
Answer : Economic

Q19. Which one of the following is a major element of economic environment?
a. Traditions
b. Economic policies
c. Types of government
d. The judgement of courts
Answer : Economic Policies

Q20. …… refers to innovations related to various business activities
a. Technological environment
b. Political environment
c. Social environment
d. Internal environment
Answer : Technological Environment

Q21. The digital watches have almost eliminated the market of the traditional watches, is an impact of
a. Technological environment
b. Political environment
c. Social environment
d. Internal environment
Answer : Technological Environment

Q22. The decisions taken by various commissions and agencies ,falls under the major element of … environment.
a. Technological environment
b. Political environment
c. Social environment
d. Legal environment
Answer: Legal environment

Q23. Withdrawal of the status of ‘legal tender’ to the currency in circulation is called
a. Decentralization
b. Demonetization
c. Liberalisation
d. Privatisation
Answer: Demonetization

Q24. Tax administrative measure and creating less cash economy are the key features of…
a. Decentralization
b. Demonetization
c. Liberalisation
d. Privatisation
Answer: Demonetization

Q25. …… means integrating the economy with rest of the world.
a. Decentralization
b. Demonetization
c. Globalisation
d. Privatisation
Answer : Globalisation

Q26. Which of the following is the essential feature of liberalisation?
a. Increase in government treasury
b. Attracting foreign investment
c. Reduction in the tax rate
d. Discovering new ways of producing goods and services
Answer: Reduction in the Tax Rate

Q27. Which of the following is the essential feature of privatisation?
a. Encouraging private investment
b. Simplifying import export procedure
c. Increase in government treasury
d. Free flow of capital in all countries
Answer : Increase in Government Treasury

Q28. Which of the following is the essential feature of globalisation?
a. Encouraging private investment
b. Simplifying import export procedure
c. Increase in government treasury
d. Free flow of capital in all countries
Answer: Free flow of Capital in all Countries

Q29. Which of the following is the objective of economic reforms?
a. Increase in government treasury
b. Free flow of capital in all countries
c. Increasing foreign exchange reserves
d. None of these
Answer : Increasing Foreign Exchange Reserves

Q30. Under …… the industries have been freed to a large extent from the licences and other controls.
a. Fiscal reforms
b. New trade policy
c. New industrial policy
d. Monetary reforms
Answer : New Industrial Policy

Q31. … means that the country is spending more than it’s income
a. Fiscal reforms
b. New trade policy
c. New industrial policy
d. Fiscal deficit
Answer: Fiscal Deficit

Q32. The market in which securities are sold and bought is known as
a. Cash Market
b. Investment Market
c. Capital market
d. General Market
Answer: Capital Market

MCQ of Planning

Q1. Planning refers to 
a. thinking while doing
b. thinking after completion of work
c. Thinking beforehand
d. None of these
Answer: Thinking beforehand

Q2. Planning is _____ function of management
a. Second
b. Last
c. Primary
d. Least important
Answer : Primary

Q3. Which of the following is essential feature of planning?
a. Related to human beings
b. It is a mental exercise and all pervasive process
c. It is the means of motivation
d. It integrates employees efforts
Answer : It is a mental exercise and all pervasive process

Q4. Planning reduces _____ activities
a. Important
b. Physical and mental
c. Overlapping and wasteful
d. Social
Answer: Overlapping and Wasteful

Q5. Standards for controlling is established by
a. Planning
b. Directing
c. Staffing
d. Organising
Answer: Planning

Q6. Planning does not work in _____ environment.
a. Social
b. Dynamic
c. Stable
d. Economic
Answer : Dynamic

Q7. Planning process:
Setting objectives ➡ developing premises ➡ _____ ➡evaluating alternative courses.
a. Selecting an alternative
b. Implementing plan
c. Follow up action
d. Identifying alternative courses of action
Answer : Identifying Alternative Courses of Action

Q8. What are premises?
a. It refers to thinking before hand
b. It refers to make changes in past
c. It refers to make certain assumptions about the future
d. None of these
Answer : It refers to make certain assumptions about the future

Q9. Internal premises include 
a. Government policies
b. Business competition
c. Capital and Labour
d. Rate of taxes
Answer: Capital and Labour

Q10. External premises include 
a. Raw material
b. Business competition
c. Machinery
d. Labour
Answer : Business Competition

Q11. Plan is categorized into
a. Old plans and new plans
b. Standing plan and single use plan
c. Old plans and modern plan
d. None of these
Answer : Standing Plan and Single Use plan

Q12. Standing plans is also called
a. Repeatedly used plans
b. Modern plans
c. Adhoc plans
d. Simple plans
Answer : Repeatedly Used Plans

Q13. Single use plans is also called
a. Repeatedly used plans
b. Modern plans
c. Adhoc plans
d. Simple plans
Answer: Adhoc plans

Q14. To make the employment available to 100 people every year is
a. a policy
b. a strategy
c. an objective
d. a purpose
Answer: An objective

Q15. Which of the following is feature of ‘Objectives’ ?
a. They should be unambiguous
b. They should be measurable
c. They should be achievable
d. All of these
Answer: All of these

Q16. What are policies?
a. Special target to be achieved by an organization
b. It tells us how an organization is different from the organization of the same type
c. It refers to those general statements which are decided for the guidance of the employees while taking decision
d. It refers to thinking before hand
Answer : It refers to those general statements which are decided for the guidance of the employees while taking decision

Q17. _____ describes the desired results in numerical terms
a. Budget
b. Method
c. Policy
d. Strategy
Answer : Budget

Q18. What is method?
a. It describe the desired results in numerical terms
b. It is that plan which determines how different activities of the procedure are completed
c. It refers to the quantitative expression of the plan of action
d. It is a general guideline which brings uniformity in decision making
Answer : It is that plan which determines how different activities of the procedure are completed

Q19. Budget is an instrument of both _____ and _____ hence no question of selection arises.
a. Directing and controlling
b. Planning and organising
c. Organising and controlling
d. Planning and controlling
Answer : Planning and Controlling

Q20. ‘ No smoking in the factory’ is an example of:
a. Rule
b. Procedure
c. Method
d. Policy
Answer : Rule

Q21. Procedure is a guide to…
a. Employees
b. Manager
c. Action
d. Decision making
Answer : Action

Q22. Policy is a guide to
a. Employees
b. Manager
c. Action
d. Decision making
Answer : Decision Making

Q23. Under which Policy, it can be decided that the goods will be sold only on cash payment.
a. Personnel Policy
b. Government policy
c. Sales policy
d. Price – determining Policy
Answer : Sales Policy

Q24. ___ provide a basis for interpreting strategy, which is usually stated in general terms.
a. Policies
b. Procedures
c. Objectives
d. Programmes
Answer : Policies

Q25. The exact manner in which any work is to be performed is detailed through ____
a. Rules
b. Methods
c. Procedures
d. Programmes
Answer : Procedures

Q26. ____ helps to save time, money and effort, and increases efficiency.
a. Procedure
b. Programme
c. Rule
d. Method
Answer: Method

Q27. Plan which quantifies future facts and figures is called _____
a. Procedure
b. Programme
c. Rule
d. Budget
Answer : Budget

Q28. Which of the following is not a standing plan?
a. Policy
b. Procedure
c. Programme
d. Rule
Answer : Programme

Q29.Which of the following is not a single use plan?
a. Budget
b. Programme
c. Method
d. All of the above
Answer : Method

Q30. Karan wants to increase the sale of his business by 20% in the next quarter. Identify the type of plan being described in the above lines.
a. Method
b. Objective
c. Strategy
d. Programme
Answer : Objective

MCQ of Organising

Q1. Organising is ___ function of process of management.
a. Primary
b. Second
c. Less important
d. Last
Answer : Second

Q2. Organising refers to 
a. thinking before hand
b. filling and keeping filled the post with people
c. bringing the actual results closer to the desired results
d. harmonious adjustment of various parts to achieve common objectives
Answer : Harmonious adjustment of various parts to achieve common objectives

Q3. Which of the following is the key feature of organising?
a. Coordination
b. Division of work
c. Ethical code of conduct
d. both a and b
Answer : Both a and b

Q4. Which of the following highlights importance of organising?
a. Clarity in working relationship
b. Scientific decision
c. Optimum utilisation of resources
d. Both a and b
Answer : Both a and c

Q5. ___ is a process which co-ordinates human efforts, assembles resources and integrates both into a unified whole to be utilised for achieving specified objectives
a. Management
b. Planning
c. Organising
d. Controlling
Answer : Organising

Q6. Under the process of Organising ,a manager ___
a. Establishes order out of chaos
b. Removes conflict among people over work or responsibility sharing
c. Creates an environment suitable for teamwork
d. All of the above
Answer : All of the above

Q7. ___ is defined as the framework within which managerial and operating tasks are performed.
a. Span of management
b. Organisational structure
c. Informal organisation
d. None of the above
Answer : Organisational Structure

Q8. The number of subordinates that can be effectively managed by a superior is ___
a. Organisational structure
b. Informal organisation
c. Span of management
d. None of the above
Answer : Span of Management

Q9. The number of levels of management in the organisation ___ as when the span of management increases in an organisation.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains unaffected
d. None of the above
Answer : Decreases

Q10. Siya Limited is a company dealing in metal products. The work is mainly divided into functions including production, purchase, marketing, accounts and personnel. Identify the type of organisational structure followed by the organisation.
a. Functional structure
b. Relational structure
c. Divisional structure
d. None of the above
Answer : Functional Structure

Q11. Formal Organisation is 
a. designed by anyone
b. natural groupings of people
c. designed by the management
d. None of these
Answer : Designed by the Management

Q12. In formal organisation, there is no 
a. Unity of command
b. Overlapping of work
c. Stability in organisation
d. Rules and procedures
Answer : Overlapping of Work

Q13. Limitations of formal organisation includes 
a. Creates rumours
b. Resists change
c. Pressure of group norms
d. Delay in work
Answer : Delay in Work

Q14. Lack of stability is an essential feature of 
a. Private organisation
b. Informal organisation
c. Government organisation
d. Formal organisation
Answer : Informal Organisation

Q15. ___ is a drawing which shows the relationship among the various posts established in the organisation.
a. Organisation chart
b. Organisation manual
c. Organisation structure
d. Span of management
Answer : Organisation Chart

Q16. Informal organisation fulfills
a. Political needs
b. Economic needs
c. Social needs
d. Personal needs
Answer : Social Needs

Q17. ___ refers to that framework within which all managerial and non-managerial tasks are performed.
a. Organisation chart
b. Organisation manual
c. Organisation structure
d. Span of management
Answer : Organisation Structure

Q18. Benefits of specialisation and training is facilitated under 
a. Functional organisation structure
b. Divisional organisation
c. Line organisation
d. Line and staff organisation
Answer : Functional Organisation Structure

Q19. ___ is suited where the number of main products is more than one.
a. Functional organisation structure
b. Divisional organisation
c. Line organisation
d. Line and staff organisation
Answer : Divisional Organisation

Q20. Advantages of functional organisation does not include 
a. Coordination is established
b. Equal weightage to all functions
c. Divisional results can be assessed
d. Benefits of specialisation
Answer : Divisional results can be assessed

Q21.___ is suitable where decentralization of authority is needed.
a. Functional organisation structure
b. Divisional organisation
c. Line organisation
d. Line and staff organisation
Answer : Functional Organisation Structure

Q22. Delegation of authority refers to :
a. assigning work to others and not giving them authority to do it
b. assigning work to others and giving them authority to do it
c. Not assigning work but giving all authority to others
d. None of these
Answer : Assigning work to others and giving them authority to do it

Q23. ___ is the obligation of a subordinate to properly perform the assigned duty.
a. Authority
b. Accountability
c. Management
d. Responsibility
Answer: Responsibility

Q24. Obligation of a subordinate to complete the assigned job is called
a. responsibility by
b. responsibility on
c. responsibility for
d. responsibility to
Answer : Responsibility for

Q25. Accountability of a subordinate for his work performance in relation to the authority given to him is called
a. responsibility by
b. responsibility on
c. responsibility for
d. responsibility to
Answer : Responsibility to

Q26. The power to take decisions is called 
a. Authority
b. Accountability
c. Management
d. Responsibility
Answer: Authority

Q27. ‘Responsibility for’ is called 
a. General responsibility
b. Operating responsibility
c. Ultimate responsibility
d. None of these
Answer: Operating Responsibility

Q28. ‘Responsibility to’ is called 
a. General responsibility
b. Operating responsibility
c. Ultimate responsibility
d. None of these
Answer : Ultimate Responsibility

Q29. ___ means the answerability of the subordinate to his superior for his work performance.
a. Authority
b. Accountability
c. Management
d. Responsibility
Answer : Accountability

Q30. Responsibility establishes relationship between ___ and ___
a. Business and entrepreneur
b. Business and government
c. Department and manager
d. senior and subordinate
Answer : Senior and Subordinate

Q31. The three elements of delegation process completed in the following serial order 
a. Assigning responsibility ➡ Fixing Accountability ➡ Granting Authority
b. Granting Authority ➡ Assigning responsibility ➡ Fixing accountability
c. Fixing accountability ➡ granting authority➡ Assigning responsibility
d. Assigning responsibility➡ Granting authority➡ Fixing accountability
Answer : Assigning responsibility➡ Granting authority➡ Fixing accountability

Q32. Which of the following highlights importance of delegation of authority?
a. Effective management
b. Motivation of employees
c. Facilitation of growth
d. All of above
Answer : All of above

Q33. ___ means to increase the existing volume of the business.
a. Decentralization
b. Expansion
c. Modernisation
d. Diversification
Answer : Expansion

Q34. ___means to adopt latest techniques in the business
a. Decentralization
b. Expansion
c. Modernisation
d. Diversification
Answer : Modernisation

Q35. ___ means to deal in the business of many products instead of a single product
a. Decentralization
b. Expansion
c. Modernisation
d. Diversification
Answer : Diversification

Q36. Decentralization is …
a. delegation of authority
b. Deleted version of delegation of authority
c. Expansion of delegation of authority
d. None of these
Answer : Expansion of delegation of authority

MCQ of Marketing Management

Q1. According to traditional view, market refers to 
a. people or organisations who want to satisfy their needs
b. a particular place where buyers and sellers meet each other and conduct buying and selling activities
c. a group of the actual and potential buyers of goods & services
d. None of these
Answer : A particular place where buyers and sellers meet each other and conduct buying and selling activities

Q2. According to modern view, market refers to 
a. people or organisations who want to satisfy their needs
b. a particular place where buyers and sellers meet each other and conduct buying and selling activities
c. a group of the actual and potential buyers of goods or services
d. None of these
Answer : a group of the actual and potential buyers of goods or services

Q3. ____ refers to the people or organisations that want to satisfy their needs
a. Market
b. Marketer
c. Customer
d. Need
Answer: Customer

Q4. Who is marketer?
a. It refers to the people or organisations who want to satisfy their needs
b. It refers to the sale of goods and services through advertisement, publicity and salesmanship
c. It refers to any person who takes more active part in the process of exchange
d. It refers to a group of the actual and potential buyers of goods & services
Answer : It refers to any person who takes more active part in the process of exchange

Q5. What are the two types of marketer?
a. Good marketer and bad marketer
b. Good marketer and service marketer
c. Cash marketer and credit marketer
d. None of these
Answer : Good marketer and service marketer

Q6. ____ refers to that process under which valuable goods / services are created, offered and by doing transaction independently, the needs are satisfied.
a. Selling
b. Marketing management
c. Marketing
d. Marketer
Answer : Marketing

Q7. ____ means a feeling of deficiency of something.
a. Marketing
b. Need
c. Want
d. Selling
Answer : Need

Q8. When need is seen in some special context, it is called ____
a. Marketing
b. Need
c. Want
d. Selling
Answer :Want

Q9. Features of marketing involve 
a. Need and want
b. Relief to top management
c. Exchange mechanism
d. Both a and c
Answer : Both a and c

Q10. Anything that can be of value to the buyer can be termed as
a. Gift
b. Product
c. Charity
d. Market
Answer : Product

Q11. ____ refers to the combination of all decisions relating to the product.
a. Product
b. Product mix
c. Market
d. Marketing mix
Answer : Product mix

Q12. What do you mean by branding?.
a. It refers to that part of Brand which cannot be spoken but can be recognised easily
b. It refers to that part of Brand which can be spoken
c. It refers to special word, symbol, letter Or the mixture of all these
d. It refers to that process through which a special identification of product is established
Answer : It refers to that process through which a special identification of product is established

Q13. ____ refers to that part of Brand which can be spoken.
a. Brand
b. Branding
c. Brand name
d. Brand mark
Answer : Brand name

Q14. ____refers to special word, symbol, letter or the mixture of all these.
a. Brand
b. Branding
c. Brand name
d. Brand mark
Answer : Brand

Q15. When a Brand is registered under the ____, it becomes the Trade Mark.
a. Trade Marks act, 1996
b. Trade Marks act, 1997
c. Trade Marks act, 1998
d. Trade Marks act, 1999
Answer : Trade Marks act, 1999

Q16. ____ refers to the combination of those activities which are related with the designing and production of the containers in which the products are packed.
a. Packaging
b. Branding
c. Labelling
d. Advertising
Answer : Packaging

Q17. ____ refers to the process of preparing label
a. Packaging
b. Branding
c. Labelling
d. Advertising
Answer : Labelling

Q18. What is meant by Price mix?
a. It refers to the combination of all those decisions which are concerned with the price fixation of any product or service
b. It refers to the combination of promotional tools used by the business to inform and persuade the customers about the products
c. It refers to the combination of all decisions relating to make products available to consumers
d. None of these
Answer : It refers to the combination of all those decisions which are concerned with the price fixation of any product or service

Q19. … refers to the combination of all decisions relating to make products available to consumers.
a. Price mix
b. Product mix
c. Promotion mix
d. Place mix
Answer : Place mix

Q20. ____ refers to the combination of promotional tools used by the business to inform and persuade the customers about the products
a. Price mix
b. Product mix
c. Promotion mix
d. Place mix
Answer : Promotion mix

Q21. ____ can be described as the art of creating a demand for article or a service.
a. Packaging
b. Labelling
c. Branding
d. Advertising
Answer : Advertising

Q22. Personal selling consists of :
a. Home delivery of various product personally
b. Contacting customers of various product personal
c. Contacting prospective buyers of product personally
d. None of these
Answer : Contacting prospective buyers of product personally

Q23. Qualities of a good salesman include
a. Provide compulsion Home delivery
b. Social attributes
c. Provide mostly credit sales of product
d. None of these
Answer : Social attributes

Q24. Tools to establish public relations include :
a. News
b. Personal meeting
c. Printed material
d. Both a and c
Answer : Both a and c

Q25. ____ refers to non-sales communication which a business has with its various audience.
a. Grapevine communication
b. Sales promotion
c. Public relations
d. Personal selling
Answer : Public relations

Q26. Under… method, the customer of a particular product are offered gifts on a fixed date and the winners are decided by the draw of lots.
a. Rebate
b. Discount
c. Instant draw
d. Lucky draw
Answer : Lucky draw

Q27. Under____ method, a customers is asked to scratch a card on the purchase of a product and the name of the product is inscribed thereupon which is immediately offered to the customer as a gift
a. Rebate
b. Discount
c. Lucky draw
d. Instant draw and Assigned gift
Answer: Instant draw and Assigned gift

Q28. Under ____ method, coupons are distributed among the consumers on behalf of the producer.
a. Assigned gift
b. Sampling
c. Usable benefits
d. Contests
Answer : Usable benefits

Q29. Rebate, discount, refunds, contests are major techniques of :
a. Personal selling
b. Sales promotion
c. Public relations
d. Marketing
Answer : Sales promotion

Q30. Marketing is a … process
a. Physical
b. Social
c. Chemical
d. None of these
Answer : Social

Q31. Which of the following things are important in respect of exchange?
a. The presence of two sides- the buyer and the seller
b. One party should be capable of paying something
c. Both the parties make transactions for their own satisfaction
d. Both a and c
Answer : Both a and c

Q32. Marketing has ____ scope.
a. Narrow
b. Broad
c. Limited
d. None of these
Answer: Broad

Q33. Selling has ____ scope.
a. Narrow
b. Broad
c. Limited
d. None of these
Answer : Narrow

Q34. Main steps involved in the process of marketing management are :
a. Choosing a target market
b. Growing consumers in target market
c. Creating superior values
d. All of these
Answer : All of these

Q35. 4 P stand for :
a. Packaging, packing, Price, promotion
b. Place, packaging, police, promotion
c. Product, Promotion, Price, Place
d. None of these
Answer : Product, Promotion, Price, Place

Q36. ____ refers to that process which makes the product attractive to the target customers.
a. Standardisation
b. Product designing and development
c. Grading
d. Customer support service
Answer : Product designing and development

Q37. … refers to a group of services which aim at providing maximum satisfaction to the customers.
a. Standardisation
b. Product designing and development
c. Grading
d. Customer support service
Answer : Customer support service

Q38. A product provides _____ types of satisfaction.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer: 3

Q39. Functions of branding include 
a. Providing information required by law
b. Grading the product
c. Creating product differentiation
d. Product protection
Answer : Creating product differentiation

Q40. Functions of labelling don’t include 
a. Providing information required by law
b. Grading the product
c. Creating product differentiation
d. Help in Product promotion
Answer : Creating product differentiation

Q41. Product identification and product protection is primary function of :
a. Branding
b. Labelling
c. Grading
d. Packaging
Answer : Packaging

Q42. There are _____ levels of packaging.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer : 3

Q43. ____ refers to that container which is very close to the product.
a. Grading
b. Primary packaging
c. Secondary packaging
d. Transportation packaging
Answer : Primary packaging

Q44. Price of goods and services are expressed in ____
a. Qualitative terms
b. Monetary terms
c. Descriptive terms
d. Oral form
Answer : Monetary terms

Q45. Advertising, personal selling, sales promotion are elements of
a. Place mix
b. Promotion mix
c. Product mix
d. Price mix
Answer: Promotion mix

We would love your reading of MCQs for CUET 2022 of other subjects which are as follow.

STATE TRUE OR FALSE 
1. Service marketer do not sell any product but provide only services.
(True)
2. The concept of Need and want in the marketing are similar.
(False)
3. The scope of marketing is narrow and scope of selling is broad.
(False)
4. Choosing a target market is first main step of process of marketing management.
(True)
5. Advertising is impersonal and personal selling is personal
(True)

# MCQ Business Studies CUET

# MCQ Business Studies CUET Class 12

# MCQ Business Studies CUET for Undergraduate Program

# MCQ Business Studies CUET With Answers

# MCQ Business Studies CUET Important Questions

# MCQ Business Studies CUET Important Questions With Answers

 

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