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MCQ Political Science CUET 2022-2023 With Answers | BrainyLads |

MCQ of Challenges of Nation Building

1) Name the first Prime Minister of independent India?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

c) Lal Bahadur Shastri

d) B.R. Ambedkar

ANSWER – Jawaharlal Nehru       

2) Which among the following was not a challenge that independent India faced?

a) Shape a nation that was united

b) Establish autocracy

c) Ensure the development and well being of entire society

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Establish Autocracy

3) British India was divided into –

a) India and Bangladesh

b) Pakistan and Bangladesh

c) Pakistan and Tibet

d) India and Pakistan

ANSWER – India and Pakistan

4) According to the ‘Two Nation Theory’, India consisted of not one but two people ______

a) Hindus and Christians

b) Hindus and Muslims

c) Muslims and Sikhs

d) Jains and Muslims

ANSWER – Hindus and Muslims

5) Concept of ‘two nation theory’ was –

a) That Muslims and non – Muslims should be two separate nations

b) That there should be different countries for all the different religions

c) Muslims should be given autonomy

d) None of the above

ANSWER – That Muslims and non – Muslims should be two separate nations

6) Which of the following was the outcome of two nation theory?

a) Partition of India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh

b) Partition of British India into India and Pakistan

c) Partition of all the minorities from India

d) Partition of east and West Pakistan

ANSWER – Partition of British India into India and Pakistan

7) Who was known as frontier Gandhi?

a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar khan

b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah

c) Jawaharlal Nehru

d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

ANSWER – Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

8) In context with the partition, the term ‘religious majorities’ means –

a) That Hindu majority is to be separated with all other minority groups

b) That only minorities will remain in India

c) Both A and B

d) That areas where Muslims were in majority would make up the territory of Pakistan

ANSWER- That areas where Muslims were in majority would make up the territory of Pakistan

9) Who delivered the famous speech ‘Tryst with Destiny’?

a) Sardar Vallabhai Patel

b) Mahatma Gandhi

c) Jawaharlal Nehru

d) Lal Bahadur Shastri

ANSWER – Jawaharlal Nehru 

10) Which among the following statement about the problems/difficulties faced during partition is incorrect?

a) In British India there was no single belt consisting Muslim majority

b) Two of Muslim majority provinces of British India, Bengal and Gujarat, had very large areas of non Muslim majority

c) Among the Muslim majority areas not all of them wanted to be a part of Pakistan

d) Problems of ‘minorities’ on both sides of the border

ANSWER – Two of Muslim majority provinces of British India, Bengal and Gujarat, had very large areas of non Muslim majority

11) What was the % of Muslim population in India in 1951?

a) 15%

b) 12%

c) 10%

d) 5%

ANSWER – 12%

12) Which statement about the consequences of partition is correct?

a) People of one community eliminated people of other community in the name of religion and cities like Kolkata, Amritsar and Lahore became communal zones

b) Around 5 to 10 lakh people were killed in consequence of partition

c) Both A and B

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Both A and B 

13) Writers and poets described partition as –

a) Division of properties

b) Division of liabilities and assets

c) Political division of the country

d) Division of hearts

ANSWER – Division of hearts

14) The _______ was formed to protect the interest of the Muslims in colonial India.

a) Princely states

b) Muslim league

c) Hindu community

d) Both B and C

ANSWER – Muslim league 

15) Princely states were ruled by 

a) British government

b) Indian government

c) Princess

d) Prime minister

ANSWER – Princess

16) The “Communal zones” exclude –

a) Lahore

b) Travancore

c) Amritsar

d) Calcutta

ANSWER – Travancore

17) British India provinces were controlled by?

a) Princes

b) British government

c) British citizens

d) None of the above

ANSWER – British government 

18) How many princely states were there at the time of independence?

a) 590

b) 568

c) 565

d) 560

ANSWER – 565

19) What do you mean by the ‘British paramountcy’ or ‘suzerainty’?

a) Some form of control over their internal affairs was enjoyed by Princely states

b) The British province were directly under the control of British government

c) The dominance of the British government

d) Both A and B

ANSWER – Some form of control over their internal affairs was enjoyed by princely states

20)  Instrument of accession means –

a) State agreed to become a part of the union of India

b) State disagreed to become a part of the union of India

c) State wants autonomy

d) None of the above

ANSWER – State agreed to become a part of the union of India

21) Name the first deputy Prime minister of India?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel

d) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

ANSWER – Sardar Vallabhai Patel 

22) A Para military force of Nizam of Hyderabad which was sent to respond people’s movement was known as _______

a) LTTE

b) Nizam’s Army

c) Indian Army

d) Razakars

ANSWER – Razakars

23) Who was the maharaja of Manipur at the time of independence?

a) Krishnadatta Chamaraja

b) Bodhachandra Singh

c) Chandragupta Maurya

d) Ajatasatru

ANSWER – Bodhachandra Singh

24) Which was the first Indian state to hold an election based on universal adult franchise in June 1948?

a) Meghalaya

b) Telangana

c) Manipur

d) Hyderabad

ANSWER – Manipur

25) When was the merger agreement between maharaja of Manipur and the government of India signed?

a) Sep, 1949

b) July, 1948

c) Sep, 1948

d) June, 1947

ANSWER – Sep, 1949

26) Movement for a separate Andhra was called –

a) Andhra movement

b) Telugu movement

c) Vishalandhra movement

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Vishalandhra Movement

27) Name the veteran gandhian (also a congress leader) who went on indefinite fast that led to his death after 56 days

a) Chandresh Reddy

b) Potti Sriramulu

c) Saket Vishwa

d) Gaurav Patel

ANSWER – Potti Sriramulu

28)  Prime minister announced the formation of a separate Andhra state in ______

a) December 1950

b) January 1952

c) November 1951

d) December 1952

ANSWER – December 1952

29) In which year was the State reorganization commission was appointed?

a) 1951

b) 1955

c) 1953

d) 1952

ANSWER – 1953

30) Who played a vital role in the integration of princely states with India?

a) Sardar Vallabhai patel

b) Mahatma Gandhi

c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

d) Lal Bahadur Shastri

ANSWER – Sardar Vallabhai Patel

31) States created in 1960 were ________

a) Tripura and Rajasthan

b) Maharashtra and Gujarat

c) Meghalaya and Assam

d) Punjab and Haryana

ANSWER – Maharashtra and Gujarat

32)  Which of the following state was not created in 2000?

a) Chhattisgarh

b) Assam

c) Uttrakhand

d) Jharkhand

ANSWER – Assam

33) Meghalaya was carved out from?

a) Assam

b) Manipur

c) Tripura

d) Sikkim

ANSWER – Assam

34) Which of the following princely state not resisted joining India?

a) Hyderabad

b) Manipur

c) Kashmir

d) Mysore

ANSWER – Mysore

35) Mention the base of the state reorganization act in 1956?

a) Religion

b) Language

c) Ethnicity

d) Both A and B

ANSWER – Language

36) Gujarat was carved out from 

a) Maharashtra

b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Madhya Pradesh

d) Bombay

ANSWER – Bombay

37) Haryana was carved out from –

a) Punjab

b) Himachal Pradesh

c) Uttar Pradesh

d) Rajasthan

ANSWER – Punjab

38) ‘THE DAWN OF FREEDOM’ was written by –

a) Mohammad Ali Jinnah

b) Jawaharlal Nehru

c) Faiz Ahmed Faiz

d) Amrita Pritam

ANSWER – Faiz Ahmed Faiz 

39) When Mohammad Ali Jinnah addressed the constituent assembly of Pakistan at Karachi?

a) 11 August 1947

b) 13 August 1948

c) 14 August 1947

d) 16 August 1947

ANSWER – 11 August 1947

40)  Famous poet, Amrita Pritam was from –

a) Assam

b) Bihar

c) Punjab

d) Jammu and Kashmir

ANSWER – Punjab

41)  When Meghalaya was carved out of Assam?

a) 1972

b) 1960

c) 1966

d) 1965

ANSWER – 1972

42) When Haryana was carved out of Punjab?

a) 1965

b) 1962

c) 1966

d) 1963

ANSWER – 1966

MCQ of Planning And Development 

1)  A section of big industrialists got together in 1944 and drafted a joint proposal for setting up a planned economy in the country. It was called ________

  1. Planning commission
  2.  Bombay plan
  3. Drafting committee
  4. Constituent assembly

ANSWER – Bombay Plan

2) Who was the chairperson of planning commission?

  1. Prime minister of India
  2. President of India
  3. Vice president of India
  4. Governor of Kerala

ANSWER – Prime minister of India

3) What became the central machinery for deciding what track and plan/approach India would adopt for its development?

  1. Bombay plan
  2. First five year plan
  3. Drafting committee
  4. Planning commission

ANSWER – Planning Commission

4) The provision of Five year plan was borrowed from?

  1. union Of Soviet Socialist Republic
  2. united States Of America
  3. Japan
  4. Britain

ANSWER – union of Soviet Socialist Republic

5) When was the first Five year plan started in India?

  1. 1 March 1951
  2. 1 April 1951
  3. 1 February 1951
  4. 2 December 1952

ANSWER – 1 April 1951                                    

6) In which year the Planning commission set up in India?

  1. August 1950
  2. January 1951
  3. March 1950
  4. April 1951

ANSWER – March 1950

7) Name the two models of development?

  1. Capitalist and socialist
  2. Socialist and Maoist
  3. Capitalist and Marxist
  4. None of the above

ANSWER – Capitalist and Socialist

8) ______ budget that is spent on routine items on a yearly basis

  1. Plan
  2. Non plan
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of the above

ANSWER – Non plan

9) From which country, the Socialist model of development was related?

  1. Belgium
  2. Greece
  3. USA
  4. USSR

ANSWER – USSR

10) Tribal population of Orissa fears displacement because of setting up of industries and extraction of which mineral?

  1. Iron ore
  2. Copper
  3. Magnesium
  4. Uranium

ANSWER – Iron ore

11) _______ budget that is spent on a five year basis as per the priorities fixed by the plan

  1. Plan
  2. Non plan
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of the above

ANSWER – Plan

12) From which country, the Capitalist model of development was related?

  1. USSR
  2. Czechoslovakia
  3. USA
  4. Both A and B

ANSWER – USA

13) When the second Five year plan was launched?

  1. 1952
  2. 1955
  3. 1951
  4. 1956

ANSWER – 1956

14) Year in which no five year plan is adopted is called _____

  1. Economic crisis
  2. Plan holiday
  3. Gap between five year plans
  4. None of the above

ANSWER – Plan holiday

15) Name a young economist involved in drafting the first five year plan, who argued that India should ‘hasten slowly’ for the first two decades

  1. N. Raj
  2. C. Mahalanobis
  3. Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. V. Keskar

ANSWER – K.N. Raj

16) The main objective of the first Five year plan was _______

  1. Industrial development
  2. Agricultural growth
  3. Transport and Communication
  4. None of the above

ANSWER – Agricultural growth

17) The second five year plan was drafted under the leadership of ______

  1. N. Roy
  2. N. Raj
  3. C. Mahalanobis
  4. C. Kumar

ANSWER – P.C. Mahalanobis

18) The main objective of the second five year plan was _______

  1. Agricultural growth
  2. Industrial development
  3. Social services
  4. None of the above

ANSWER – Industrial development

19) What was the principle obstacle in the way of agriculture growth?

  1. Pattern of land distribution
  2. Indian farmers
  3. Big industries
  4. None of the above

ANSWER – Pattern of land distribution

20) Who was the author of ‘Economy of Permanence’?

  1. C. Mahalanobis
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. C. Kumarappa
  4. Karuna Bannerjee

ANSWER – J.C. Kumarappa

21) Which of the following point is not a criticism of second five year plan?

  1. It lacked an agrarian strategy for development
  2. It was beneficial to urban people only
  3. Both A and B
  4. It made rural India to avail benefits of green revolution

ANSWER – It made rural India to avail benefits of green revolution

22) Name the decentralised model of planning adopted by an Indian state

  1. Bihar model
  2. Karnataka model
  3. Kerala model
  4. Goa model

ANSWER – Kerala model

23) Which among the following was not a focus point of Kerala model?

  1. Water sanitation
  2. Health
  3. Education
  4. Poverty alleviation

ANSWER – Water sanitation

24) Which state has achieved almost total literacy?

  1. Kerala
  2. Karnataka
  3. Sikkim
  4. Tamil Nadu

ANSWER – Kerala

25) Mixed economy can be described as _________

  1. Development left entirely to private sector
  2. Private property abolished, all the production is controlled by the state
  3. Elements from both capitalist and socialist models are taken and mixed together
  4. None of the above

ANSWER – Elements from both capitalist and socialist models are taken and mixed together

26) Which of the following is not a criticism related to private sector?

  1. Planners refused to provide the private sector enough space to grow
  2. Government put minimal restrictions and hurdles for private capital
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of the above

ANSWER – Government put minimal restrictions and hurdles for private capital

27) ‘Raag Darbari’ was written by _______

  1. Shrilal Shukla
  2. S Naidu
  3. Chunibala Devi
  4. Uma Das

ANSWER – Shrilal Shukla

28) Which state faced food – crisis and a near famine situation in 1965-67?

  1. Rajasthan
  2. Bihar
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Tripura

ANSWER – Bihar

29) Green revolution can be defined as –

  1. Government offered HYV seeds, fertilisers and pesticides
  2. Government also gave a guarantee o buy the produce of farmers at a given price
  3. Better irrigation at highly subsidized prices
  4. All of the above

ANSWER – All of the above

30) Which of the following was not considered as a positive effect of green revolution?

  1. Increase in production and productivity of food grains
  2. Increase in unemployment
  3. Development of industries
  4. Food grain production increased more than 100%

ANSWER – Increase in unemployment                              

31) _______ also called as the ‘Milkman of India’, played a vital role in the story of Gujarat Cooperative Milk and Marketing Federation Ltd that launched Amul

  1. Verghese Kurien
  2. Amul Ray
  3. Satyajit Kumar
  4. None of the above

ANSWER – Verghese Kurien                      

32) Which of the following was considered as a negative effect of green revolution?

  1. Increase in production
  2. Land saving
  3. Development of industries
  4. Increase in regional and personal inequalities

ANSWER – Increase in regional and personal inequalities

33) Which year was declared as the period of ‘plan holiday’?

  1. 1965-68
  2. 1999-2000
  3. 1966-69
  4. 1962-1964

ANSWER – 1966-69

34) Bombay plan was drafted in ______

  1. 1945
  2. 1944
  3. 1948
  4. 1949

ANSWER – 1944

35) S. Swaminathan was associated with _______

  1. White revolution
  2. Plan holiday
  3. Green revolution
  4. Bombay plan

ANSWER – Green revolution

36) ______ commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog

  1. Planning
  2. Policy
  3. Bombay
  4. None of the above

ANSWER – Planning

37) Which statement regarding first five year plan is not true?

  1. Huge allocations were made for large scale projects like Bhakra Nangal dam
  2. It was sought to get country’s economy out of the cycle of poverty
  3. It addressed mainly the agrarian sector
  4. None of the above

ANSWER – None of the above

38) ‘Green Revolution’ was launched in _______

  1. 1965
  2. 1967
  3. 1999
  4. 1969

ANSWER – 1967

39) Name the first chairperson of the Planning Commission

  1. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
  2. B.R. Ambedkar
  3. Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. Verghese Kurien

ANSWER – Jawaharlal Nehru

40) Which project was allotted a huge amount in the first five year plan?

  1. Narmada project
  2. Ganga river dam project
  3. Bhakra Nangal roject
  4. Both A and C

ANSWER – Bhakra Nangal project

MCQ Of India’s Foreign Policy 

1) Directive principles of state policy on ‘Promotion of international peace and security’ are mentioned in which article of the Indian constitution?

a) Article 55

b)Article 52

c)Article 51

d)Article 53

ANSWER – Article 51       

2) Which of the following was not an objective of Nehru’s foreign policy?

a) Promote rapid economic development

b) Protect territorial integrity

c) Preserve the hard-earned monarchy

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Preserve the hard-earned monarchy

3) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) was led by?

a) USSR

b) USA

c) Japan

d) Britain
ANSWER – USA

4) Which of the following was not among the founding members of NAM?

a) Nasser

b) Nkrumah

c) Lal Bahadur Shasri

d) Tito

ANSWER – Lal Bahadur Shastri

5) Full form of NAM is ________

a) Non-Aligned Movement

b) National Market Of Agriculture

c) Both A and B

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Non-Aligned Movement

6) Warsaw pact was led by _________

a) Soviet Union

b) USA

c) Australia

d) Italy

ANSWER – Soviet Union

7) Where was the first summit of NAM held?

a) Tehran

b) Shimla

c) Accra

d) Belgrade

ANSWER – Belgrade

8) Bandung conference was held in ________

a) Ghana

b) Egypt

c) Indonesia

d) Thailand

ANSWER- Indonesia

9) Which conference led to the establishment of NAM?

a) Belgrade conference

b) Tashkent conference

c) Shimla conference

d) Bandung conference

ANSWER – Bandung conference

10)  first summit of NAM was held in Belgrade in _______

a) September 1961

b) March 1961

c) July 1962

d) April 1965

ANSWER – September 1961

11) Which agreement was signed between Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Chinese Premier Zhou Enlai on 29 April 1954?

a) Tashkent agreement

b) Tehran agreement

c) Panchsheel agreement

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Panchsheel agreement

12) Name the spiritual leader who crossed over into Indian border and sought asylum in India

a) Skal Bzang

b) Dalai Lama

c) Sukarno

d) Tito

ANSWER – Dalai Lama

13) Dalai Lama has made ______ his home in India

a) Tibet

b) Dharamshala

c) Manali

d) Coorg

ANSWER – Dharamshala

14) Which is the largest refugee settlement of Tibetans in India?

a) Dharamshala (Himachal Pradesh)

b) McLeod Ganj (Himachal Pradesh)

c) Manali (Himachal Pradesh)

d) Gangtok (Sikkim)

ANSWER – Dharamshala (Himachal Pradesh)

15) Full form of NEFA is

a) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation

b) North Eastern Frontier Agency

c) Both A and B

d) None of the above

ANSWER – North Eastern Frontier Agency

16) The Panchsheel agreement was signed between _______ and ________

a) Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

b) Lal Bahadur Shastri and Yahya Khan

c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Zhou Enlai

d) None of these

ANSWER – Jawaharlal Nehru and Zhou Enlai

17) Name the two disputed areas between India and China

a) Jammu and Kashmir

b) Aksai chin and NEFA

c) Arunanchal Pradesh and Sikkim

d) Ladakh and Uttrakhand

ANSWER – Aksai chin and NEFA

18) Which of the following statement is not true regarding Indo china war 1962?

a) China launched a swift and massive invasion in October 1962 on both the disputed regions

b) The China war dented India’s image at home and abroad

c) While the Indian forces could block the Chinese advances on the western front in Ladakh in the east the Chinese managed to advance nearly to the entry point of Assam plains

d) None f the above

ANSWER –None of the above

19) Who was the defence minister at the time of Indo china war 1962?

a) V.Krishna Menon

b) Manohar Parrikar

c) Jagjivan Ram

d) Yashwantro Chavan

ANSWER – V. Krishna Menon

20) Who was the first Prime Minister to visit China after the Indo-China War?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Lal Bahadur Shastri

c) Indira Gandhi

d) Rajiv Gandhi

ANSWER – Rajiv Gandhi

21) Who was first top level leader (external affairs minister) to visit China in 1979?

a) Sardar Vallabhai Patel

b) Lal Krishna Advani

c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

d) S. Jaishankar

ANSWER – Atal Bihari Vajpayee

22) Panchsheel agreement was signed on_______

a) 29 April 1954

b) 21 August 1956

c) 19 January 1953

d) 25 April 1954

ANSWER – 29 April 1954

23) Why the no confidence motion against government was moved in 1963?

a) Because of the farm protests

b) Because of the Indo China war

c) Because of the Indo Pak war

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Because of the Indo China war

24) Which treaty was signed between India and Pakistan through the mediation of World Bank?

a) Treaty of Lahore

b) Treaty of Amritsar

c) Indus water Treaty

d) Ganga water treaty

ANSWER – Indus water treaty

25) Who was the second prime minister of India?

a) Lal Bahadur shastri

b) Indira Gandhi

c) Rajendra Prasad

d) V.K. Menon

ANSWER – Lal Bahadur Shastri

26) Tashkent agreement was signed between ________and _________

a) Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Ayub Khan

c) Rajendra Prasad and Yahya Khan

d) Lal Bahadur Shastri and Ayub Khan

ANSWER – Lal Bahadur Shastri and Ayub Khan  

27) Awami league was led by _________

a) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

b) Sheikh Mujib-Ur Rahman

c) Ziaur Rahman

D) H.M. Ershad

ANSWER – Sheikh Mujib-Ur Rahman

28) In August 1971, India signed a 20 year peace and friendship treaty with _________

a) USA

b) Pakistan

c) Soviet Union

d) Bangladesh

ANSWER – Soviet Union

29) Shimla agreement was signed between ________ and_________

a) Lal Bahadur Shastri and Zhou Enlai

b) Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

c) V.P. Mandal and Sheikh Mujib-ur Rahman

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

30) Indus water treaty was signed in 1960 between ________

a) India and Pakistan

b) India and Bangladesh

c) Pakistan and Bangladesh

d) India and Afghanistan

ANSWER – India and Pakistan

31) Which of the following is not among the 5 nuclear weapon states?

a) China

b) France

c) Russia

d) Bangladesh

ANSWER – Bangladesh

32) When was the Shimla agreement signed?   

a) 4 July 1972

b) 10 July 1973

c) 3 July 1972

d) 15 July 1972

ANSWER – 3 July 1972

33) When was the first nuclear explosion undertaken by India?

a) May 1974

b) August 1975

c) July 1974

d) February 1973

ANSWER – May 1974

34) Which of the following was not a reason of bitterness between India and China in 1962?

a)Tibet issue

b) Boundary dispute

c) Water dispute

d) Both B and C

ANSWER – Water Dispute

35) Who was the first female prime minister of India?

a) Indira Gandhi

b) Kamla Nehru

c) Pratibha Patil

d) Anandiben Patel

ANSWER – Indira Gandhi

36) Why India did not signed Non-proliferation treaty?

a) Because of the protests of Indian industrialists

b) India considered it to be discriminatory

c) Both A and B

d) None of the above

ANSWER- India considered it to be discriminatory

37) Which statement is true about Indo – Pak war 1965?

a) Pakistan launched armed attacks in the Rann of Kutch area of Gujarat

b) Indian army reached close to Lahore

C) Prime minister Lal Bahadur Shastri ordered Indian troops to launch a counter-offensive on the Punjab border

d) All of the above

ANSWER – All of the above

38) Name the war fought between India and Pakistan in 1999?

a) Kashmir war

b) Kargil war

c) Indo-Pak war

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Kargil War

39) What is the full form of CTBT?

a) Comprehensive Taste Ban Treaty

b) Compulsive Test Ban Treaty

c) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty

40) Which of the following was not among the areas occupied by Pakistan in the Kargil War?

a) Dras

b) Kaksar

c)  Mashkoh

d) Doda

ANSWER – Doda

41) What was the duration of peace and friendship treaty signed between India and Soviet Union?

a) 15 years

b) 20 years

c) 10 years

d) 25 years

ANSWER – 20 years

42) Who tried to impose the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty of 1968 on the rest of the world?

a) UN Security Council

b) UN General Assembly

c) International Court Of Justice

d) None of the above

ANSWER – UN Security Council

43) Who was worried about a possible Chinese aggression in future?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Sardar Vallabhai Patel

c) Lal Bahadur Shastri

d) Atal Behari Vajpayee

ANSWER – Sardar Vallabhai Patel

44) Britain attacked Egypt in 1956 over_______

a) Suez Canal issue

b) Panama Canal issue

c) Corinth Canal issue

d) White sea-Baltic Canal issue

ANSWER – Suez Canal issue

45) When did China attack Tibet?

a) 1960

b) 1950

c) 1952

d) 1955

ANSWER – 1950

MCQ of Cold War Era And Non Aligned Movement 

1) Cuba was an ally of ________

a. USA

b. USSR

c. UK

d. None of the above

ANSWER – USSR                                

2) Who was the president of Cuba at the time of Cuban Missile Crisis?

a. Fidel Castro

b. John F. Kennedy

c. Kwane Nkrumah

d. Justin Trudeau

ANSWER – Fidel Castro                                  

3) Cold war refers to –

a. The tensions, competition and a series of confrontations

b. Not only a matter of military alliances, power rivalries, and of the balance of power but also a real ideological conflict

c. Both A and B

d. None of the above

ANSWER – Both A and B

4) US represented the ideology of ______ and ______

a. Socialism and Communism

b. Capitalism and Socialism

c. Capitalism and liberal democracy

d. None of the above

ANSWER – Capitalism and Liberal democracy

5) Who was the leader of the Soviet Union at the time of Cuban missile crisis?

a. Mikhail Gorbachev

b. Nikita Khrushchev

c. Fidel Castro

d. Gamal Abdel Nasser

ANSWER – Nikita Khrushchev

6) When the Second World War was came to an end?

a. 1946

b. 1945

c. 1941

d. 1948

ANSWER – 1945

7) Which of the following statement is not true about the Cuban missile crisis?

a. Leader of the soviet union decided to convert Cuba into a Russian base

b. The induction of the weapons put the US, for the first time, under fire from close range

c. five weeks after the Soviet Union had placed the nuclear weapons in Cuba, the Americans became aware of it

d. None of the above

ANSWER – Five weeks after the Soviet Union had placed the nuclear weapons in Cuba, the American became aware of it

8) Who was the president of the US at the time of Cuban missile crisis?

a. John F. Kennedy

b. Franklin D. Roosevelt

c. Harry S. Truman

d. Ronald Reagan

ANSWER – John F. Kennedy

9) Soviet Union represented the ideology of ______ and ______

a. Capitalism and Liberal democracy

b. Communism and Capitalism

c. Capitalism and Socialism

d. Socialism and Communism

ANSWER – Socialism and Communism

10) Which of the following country was not among the allied powers?
a) USA

b) USSR

c) Germany

d) Britain

ANSWER – Germany

11) In the second world war the _____forces, led by the US, Soviet Union, Britain and France defeated the _____ powers

a) Allied, Axis

b) Axis, Allied

c) Power 1, Power 2

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Allied, Axis

12) US dropped two atomic bombs on the Japanese cities of _______ and _______

a) Chiba and Nara

b) Naha and Shizuoka

c) Hiroshima and Kanazawa

d) Hiroshima and Nagasaki

ANSWER – Hiroshima and Nagasaki

13) Cold war was an outcome of the emergence of which two superpowers as opponent to each other?

a) USA an Japan

b) USA and USSR

c) China and Russia

d) None of the above

ANSWER – USA and USSR

14) The western alliance was codified into an organisation named _______

a) SEATO

b) CENTO

c) NATO

d) NAM

ANSWER – NATO

15) NATO came into existence in _______

a) April 1949

b) August 1948

c) July 1948

d) March 1948

ANSWER – April 1949

16)_______ was led by the Soviet Union to counter NATO’s forces in Europe 

a) SEATO

b) CENTO

c) NAM

d) Warsaw Pact

ANSWER – Warsaw Pact

17) US dropped two atomic bombs on the Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki in _______
a) April 1945

b) August 1945

c) September 1945

d) July 1946

ANSWER – August 1945

18) Which among the following country was not a part of Axis powers?
a) Germany

b) Italy

c) Japan

d) France

ANSWER – France

19) Initially, how many members were there in NATO?

a) 15

b) 12

c) 13

d) 19

ANSWER – 12

20) When communist China and the USSR did fought a brief war over a territorial dispute?

a) 1965

b) 1967

c) 1969

d) 1966

ANSWER – 1969

21) Expand SEATO

a) Southwest Asian Treaty Organisation

b) Southeast Antarctic Treaty Organisation

c) Southeast Arabic Treaty Organisation

d) Southeast Asian Treaty Organisation

ANSWER – Southeast Asian Treaty Organisation

22) Who played a vital role in mediating between the two Koreas?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru

b) John F. Kennedy

c) Mikhail Gorbachev

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Jawaharlal Nehru

23) Superpowers needed allies in gaining access to__________

a) Territory from where they could launch their armaments and troops

b) Location form where they could spy on each other

c) Vital resources, such as oil and minerals

d) All of the above

ANSWER – All of the above                                          

24) Arena refers to –

a) Areas where upheaval and war occurred or threatened to occur between the alliance systems but did not cross certain limits

b) Countries that have agreements to support each other during war

c) Both A and B

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Areas where upheaval and war occurred or threatened to occur between the alliance systems but did no cross certain limits

25) In the Congo crisis, _______ played a key mediatory role

a) Leader of the Soviet Union

b) UN Secretary General

c) Director General of UNESCO

d) King of Nepal

ANSWER – UN Secretary General

26) Expand CENTO

a) Central Treaty Organisation

b) Central Tribal Organisation

c) Central Time Organisation

d) Central Team Organisation

ANSWER – Central Treaty Organisation

27) Where was the first summit of NAM held?

a.Tehran

b. Shimla

c. Accra

d. Belgrade

ANSWER – Belgrade

28) Which of the following was not among the founding members of NAM?

a. Nasser

b. Nkrumah

c. Nana Akufo-Addo

d. Tito

ANSWER – Nana Akufo-Addo

29) First summit of NAM was attended by _____ member states

a) 26

b) 25

c) 21

d) 27

ANSWER – 25

30) 14th summit of NAM was held in ______

a) Havana

b) Hawaii

c) Kathmandu

d) Belgrade

ANSWER – Havana

31) Neutrality refers to –

a) Remaining aloof from world affairs

b) Policy of staying out of war

c) Both A and B

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Policy of staying out of war                     

32) The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) brought out a report entitled ________
a) Towards a New Trade Policy for LDC’s

b) Towards Peace and Development

c) Towards a New Trade Policy for Development

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Towards a New Policy for Development

33) Who headed Western Alliance?

a) USA

b) USSR

c) China

d) None of the above

ANSWER – USA

34) Which of the following statement is not true about India’s response to the cold war?

a) It raised its voice against the newly decolonised countries becoming part of these alliances

b) It took particular care in staying away from the two alliances

c) Both A and B

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Both A and B

35) India signed the Treaty of friendship in August 1971 with the ________ for 20 years

a) USA

b) USSR

c) France

d) Germany

ANSWER – USSR

36) Limited Test Ban Treaty (LTBT) was signed on?

a) 5 August 1963

b) 5 July 1964

c) 6 October 1965

d) 15 March 1963

ANSWER – 5 August 1963

37) Which of the following was not a criticism that India faced over its policy of non alignment?
a) India’s non alignment was said to be ‘unprincipled’

b) India’s non alignment was said to be ‘inconsistent’

c) India’s non alignment was said to be ‘neutral’

d) None of the above

ANSWER – India’s non alignment was said to be ‘neutral’

38) Josip Broz Tito was related to?
a) NATO

b) CENTO

c) SEATO

d) NAM

ANSWER – NAM

39) When was the First World War fought?

a) 1914-1918

b) 1916-1921

c) 1912-1915

d) 1911-1918

ANSWER – 1914-1918

40) What is the full form of NPT?

a) Non-power treaty

b) Non nuclear weapon treaty

c) Non-proliferation treaty

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Non-proliferation treaty

41) According to the Non-proliferation treaty, a nuclear weapon state is one which has manufactured and erupted a nuclear weapon prior to __________

a) 1 January 1965

b) 1 January 1967

c) 1 January 1966

d) 1 January 1968

ANSWER – 1 January 1967

42) Name the treaty signed by the USSR president Mikhail Gorbachev and the US president George Bush on the reduction and limitation of strategic offensive arms in Moscow on 31 July 1991?

a) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty II

b) Strategic Arms Limitation Talks I

c) Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty II

d) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty I

ANSWER – Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty I

43) Korean war was fought in ______

a) 1955-58

b) 1957-59

c) 1950-53

d) 1951-53

ANSWER – 1950-53

44) In which year the Soviet Union was disintegrated?
a) 1995

b) 1992

c) 1993

d) 1991

ANSWER – 1991

45) Which among the following countries was not a NATO member?

a) Canada

b) India

c) France

d) Italy

ANSWER – India

MCQ of The End Of Bipolarity

1) USSR came into being after the _______ revolution in Russia in 1917

a) Communist

b) Socialist

c) Marxist

d) Capitalist

ANSWER – Socialist

2) Socialist revolution was inspired by the ideals of _______

a) Socialism

b) Marxism

c) Gandhian

d) Capitalism

ANSWER – Socialism

3) Which of the following was a drawback of the soviet system?

a) Soviet system was bureaucratic and authoritarian

b) No unemployment

c) Domestic sector industry: produced everything

d) All of the above

ANSWER – Soviet system was bureaucratic and authoritarian

4) Who invaded Afghanistan in 1979?

a) USA

b) Pakistan

c) Russia

d) Soviet Union

ANSWER – Soviet Union

5) Who became the general secretary of the Communist party of the Soviet Union in 1985?

a) Vladimir Lenin

b) Mikhail Gorbachev

c) Boris Yeltsin

d) John F. Kennedy

ANSWER – Mikhail Gorbachev

6) In which year, the coup was taken place by Communist party hardliners?

a) 1994

b) 1990

c) 1991

d) 1989

ANSWER – 1991

7) Who came up as a national hero in opposing the coup?

a) Mikhail Gorbachev

b) Fidel Castro

c) Joseph Stalin

d) Boris Yeltsin

ANSWER – Boris Yeltsin

8) In the Soviet Union, who decided to reform the society for the first time?

a) Joseph Stalin

b) Vladimir Lenin

c) Mikhail Gorbachev

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Mikhail Gorbachev

9) Russia, Ukraine and ______, three major republics of the USSR, declared that the Soviet Union was disbanded

a) Belgium

b) Georgia

c) Kosovo

d) Belarus

ANSWER – Belarus

10) Which of the following statement is true about the Soviet system?

a) State ownership was the dominant form of ownership, land and productive assets were owned by the government

b) Soviet state secured a minimum standard of living for all citizens

c) It subsidized basic necessities including health, education, childcare and other welfare schemes

d) All of the above

ANSWER – All of the above  

11) Who became the successor state of the Soviet Union?

a) Belarus

b) Ukraine

c) Russia

d) Serbia

ANSWER – Russia

12) In which year, the Soviet Union was disintegrated?

a) 1996

b) 1990

c) 1991

d) 1988

ANSWER – 1991

13) What is the full form of NATO?

a) North Antarctic Treaty Organisation

b) Northwest Atlantic Treaty Organisation

c) North Arabic Treaty Organisation

d) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation

ANSWER – North-Atlantic Treaty Organisation

14) Which of the following was not a reason behind the disintegration of the Soviet Union?

a) Soviet economy used much of its resources in maintaining a nuclear and military arsenal and the development of its satellite states in Eastern Europe and within the Soviet system

b) Ordinary citizens became more knowledgeable about the economic advance of the west

c) Soviet state secured a minimum standard of living for all citizens and subsidized basic necessities including health, education, childcare and other welfare schemes

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Soviet state secured a minimum standard of living for all citizens and subsidized basic necessities including health, education, childcare and other welfare schemes

15) What is the name of Russian currency?

a) Riyal

b) Ruble

c) Rupee

d) Real

ANSWER – Ruble

16) In Russia, two republics, _______ and _______, have had violent secessionist movements

a) Amur and Atlay

b) Chechnya and Dagestan

c) Belgorod and Chukotka

d) Chuvashiya and Dagestan

ANSWER – Chechnya and Dagestan

17) In Central Asia,_______ witnessed a civil war that went on for 10 years till 2001

a) Tajikistan

b) Uzbekistan

c) Azerbaijan

d) Kazakhstan

ANSWER – Tajikistan

18) Czechoslovakia split peacefully into two, with the ______ and the ______ forming independent countries

a) Czechaso and Slovakaso

b) Area 1 and Area 2

c) Czechs and Slovaks

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Czechs and Slovaks

19) Who was the first elected president of Russia?
a) Vladimir Putin

b) Mikhail Gorbachev

c) Joseph Stalin

d) Boris Yeltsin

ANSWER – Boris Yeltsin

20) Which of the following is not a consequence of disintegration of the Soviet Union?

a) End of Cold War confrontations

b) End of the Soviet Union and emergence of many new countries

c) Formation of Warsaw pact

d) All of the above

ANSWER – Formation of Warsaw pact

21) Name the last leader of the Soviet Union

a) Vladimir Lenin

b) Boris Yeltsin

c) Nikita Khrushchev

d) Mikhail Gorbachev

ANSWER – Mikhail Gorbachev

22) When was the Berlin wall broken?

a) 9 November 1989

b) 15 December 1988

c) 5 August 1989

d) None of the above

ANSWER – 9 November 1989

23) Name the disputed area between Azerbaijan and Armenia

a) Yugoslavia

b) Nagorno-Karabakh

c) Kotayk

d) Shirak

ANSWER – Nagorno-Karabakh

24) Who was the leader of the Soviet Union at the time of Cuban missile crisis?

a) Mikhail Gorbachev

b) Nikita Khrushchev

c) Fidel Castro

d) Gamal Abdel Nasser

ANSWER – Nikita Khrushchev

25) _________ was the founder of the Bolshevik Communist party, leader of the Russian revolution of 1917 and the founder head of the USSR

a) Leonid Brezhnev

b) Vladimir Lenin

c) Boris Yeltsin

d) Mikhail Gorbachev

ANSWER – Vladimir Lenin

26) What does the Berlin wall symbolized?

a) The division between the capitalist and the communist world

b) The division between the East Korea and the West Korea

c) The division between the Socialist and the Communist world

d) None of the above

ANSWER – The division between the capitalist and the communist world

27) Which of the following statement is true about the India-Russia relationship?

a) India stands to benefit from Russia on issues like Kashmir, energy supplies, sharing information on international terrorism

b) India is the second largest arms market for Russia

c) Russia and India have collaborated on various scientific projects

d) All of the above

ANSWER – All of the above

28) Berlin wall was built in ______

a) 1962

b) 1961

c) 1965

d) 1963

ANSWER – 1961

29) Which of the following statement is not true about Boris Yeltsin?

a) He was the second elected president of Russia

b) He was made the Mayor of Moscow by Mikhail Gorbachev

c) He played a key role in dissolving the Soviet Union

d) None of the above

ANSWER – He was the second elected president of Russia

30) Soviet system was based on _______ ideology

a) Capitalist

b) Socialist

c) Gandhian

d) None of the above

 ANSWER – Socialist

31) Name the party which dominated the Soviet Union’s political system?

a) Congress Party

b) People’s Party

c) Liberal Democratic Party

d) Communist Party

ANSWER – Communist party

32) Which of the following statement is true about Shock therapy?

a) Due to privatization, the society was divided into rich and poor

b) The value of Russian currency declined

c) Both A and B

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Both A and B

33) How many countries were there in the Soviet Union?

a) 14

b) 13

c) 15

d) 20

ANSWER – 15

34) What is the full form of CIS?

a) Commonwealth of Independent States

b) Commonwealth of Independent Status

c) Commonwealth of Ideologies

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Commonwealth of Independent States

35) Which of the following country was not a part of Soviet Union?

a) Latvia

b) Armenia

c) Azerbaijan

d) Iceland

ANSWER – Iceland

MCQ of United Nations and its Organisations

1) Who was the first secretary general of UN?

a) Dag Hammarskjöld

b) Trygve Lie

c) U Thanf

d) George Bush

ANSWER – Trygve Lie

2) In which year, Israel attacked Lebanon?

a) 2006

b) 2005

c) 2001

d) 2003

ANSWER – 2006

3) UN Charter was signed by ________ nations

a) 50

b) 51

c) 55

d) 53

ANSWER – 51

4) “The UN was not made to take humanity to heaven, but to save it from hell”

Name the person who said it

a) Antonio Guterres

b) Kofi A. Annan

c) Kurt Waldheim

d) Dag Hammarskjöld

ANSWER – Dag Hammarskjöld

5) UN Charter was signed on _______

a) 25 June 1945

b) 26 June 1945

c) 28 June 1950

d) 30 June 1944

ANSWER – 26 June 1945

6) Who was the second secretary general of UN?
a) Dag Hammarskjöld

b) Kurt Waldheim

c) Trygve Lie

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Dag Hammarskjöld

7) Israel attacked Lebanon, saying that it was necessary to control the militant group called ______

a) Al-Qaeda

b) Hezbollah

c) Ansar al-Sharia

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Hezbollah

8) _______ is celebrated as United Nations day

a) October 24

b) October 25

c) October 20

d) October 19

ANSWER – October 24

9) The UN was founded as a successor to the _______

a) League of Nations

b) Group of Nations

c) League of Countries

d) None of the above

ANSWER – League of Nations

10) The ________ is an international organisation that oversees those financial institutions and regulations that act at the international level

a) World Bank

b) World Trade Organisation

c) International Monetary Fund

d) World Health Organisation

ANSWER – International Monetary Fund

11) Which of the following is not among the main organs of the UN?

a) United Nations Security Council

b) United Nations General Assembly

c) International Court of Justice

d) International Labour Organisation

ANSWER – International Labour Organisation

12) Which of the following statement is true about International Organisation?

a) International Organisations help with matters of war and peace

b) International Organisations can help produce information and ideas about how to cooperate

c) They help countries cooperate to make better living conditions for us all

d) All of the above

ANSWER – All of the above

13) When did India join UN?

a) 24 October, 1954

b) 25 October, 1945

c) 30 October, 1945

d) None of the above

ANSWER – 30 October, 1945

14) In _______ there are 5 permanent members

a) UN General Assembly

b) UN Security Council

c) Un Secretariat

d) The Economic and Social Council

ANSWER – UN Security Council

15) Name the present Secretary general of the UN

a) Antonio Guterres

b) Ban Ki – moon

c) U Thant

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Antonio Guterres

16) Antonio Guterres was the Former Prime Minister of which country?

a) Norway

b) Italy

c) Australia

d) Portugal

ANSWER – Portugal

17) The UN was established in 1945, immediately after the ________

a) First World War

b) Cold War

c) Second World War

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Second World War

18) In _______, all the members have one vote each

a) UN Security Council

b) UN General Assembly

c) Both A and B

d) None of the above

ANSWER – UN General Assembly

19) Which of the following country is not among the 5 permanent members of the United Nation Security Council?

a) USA

b) Germany

c) Russia

d) China

ANSWER – Germany

20) Antonio Guterres took over as the secretary general on _________

a) 1 January 2018

b) 1 February 2016

c) 1 January 2017

d) 1 March 2015

ANSWER – 1 January 2017

21) Which organisation was set up as the successor to the General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT)?

a) World Health Organisation

b) World Trade Organisation

c) Amnesty International

d) None of the above

ANSWER – World Trade Organisation

22) Membership of United Nation Security Council was expanded from _____ to _____ in 1965

a) 11, 15

b) 12, 15

c) 10, 16

d) 11, 14

ANSWER – 11, 15

23) Which of the following is not among the changes that have occurred after the cold war?

a) The Soviet Union has collapsed

b) Many new countries have joined the UN

c) A whole new set of challenges confronts the world (genocide, civil war, ethnic conflict, terrorism, epidemics, nuclear proliferation, climate change, environmental degradation)

d) The Russia is the strongest power

ANSWER – The Russia is the strongest power

24) Expand WTO

a) World Tariff Organisation

B) World Health Organisation

C) World Trade Organisation

d) None of the above

ANSWER – World Trade Organisation

25) The main privileges of the five permanent members are ______ and _______

a) Veto power, inconsistency

b) Permanency, Veto power

c) Both A and B

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Permanency, Veto power

26) Which of the following statement is true about World Bank?

a) It was created during the Second World War in 1943

b) Its activities are focused on the developing countries and works for human development (education, health) agriculture and rural development etc

c) It provides loans and grants to the member countries

d) Both B and C

ANSWER – Both B and C

27) The______ is an International Organisation which sets the rules for global trade

a) World Trade Organisation

b) World Health Organisation

c) Human Rights Watch

d) None of the above

ANSWER – World Trade Organisation

28) Expand IAEA

a) International Atom Energy Agent

b) International Atoms for Peace Agency

c) International Atomic Energy Agency

d) None of the above

ANSWER – International Atomic Energy Agency

29) The _______ was created during the Second World War in 1944. Its activities are concentrated on the developing countries

a) World Trade Organisation

b) International Monetary Fund

c) International Atomic Energy Agency

d) World Bank

ANSWER – World Bank

30) Which of the following is not among the criteria essential to become a member of Security Council?

a) Nation that depicts democracy and human rights

b) A big nation in terms of population

c) A country that would make the council more representative of the world’s diversity in terms of geography, economic systems, and culture

d) None of the above

ANSWER – None of the above

31) Who is the major contributor to the UN regular budget?

a) USA

b) China

c) Russia

d) India

ANSWER – USA

32) International Atomic Energy Agency was created in _______
a) 1958

b) 1956

c) 1957

d) 1959

ANSWER – 1957

33) Which of the following statement is true about the Human Rights Watch?
a) It is involved in research and advocacy on human rights

b) It is the greatest international human rights organisation in the US

c) It draws the global media’s attentiveness to human rights molesters

d) All of the above

ANSWER – All of the above 

34) ________ is an NGO that campaigns for the protection of human rights all over the world

a) IAEA

b) Amnesty International

c) WHO

d) UNDP

ANSWER – Amnesty International

35) Which of the following was not among the complaints that reflected in the resolution over reform of the UN Security Council?

a) The Security Council no longer depicts contemporary political realities

b) Its decisions reflect only Eastern values and interests and are influenced by a few powers

c) It lacks equitable representation

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Its decisions reflect only eastern values and interests and are influenced by a few powers

36) Trygve Lie was from ______

a) Portugal

b) Norway

c) Iceland

d) Turkey

ANSWER – Norway

37) IAEA seeks to promote the peaceful use of ______ energy

a) Nuclear

b) Kinetic

c) Liquid

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Nuclear

38) There are _______ non-permanent members in UN security council

a) 15

b) 12

c) 10

d) 16

ANSWER – 10

39) India wishes to be a permanent member in the United Nation Security Council.

Which of the following statement justifies India’s claim to a permanent seat in the Security Council?

a) India is the second most populous country in the world comprising almost one-fifth of the world population

b) India is the world’s largest democracy

c) India has made systematic financial contributions to the UN and never faltered on its payments

d) All of the above

ANSWER – All of the above

40) Expand UNESCO

a) United Nation Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organisation

b) United Nation Scientific, Cultural and Educational Organisations

c) United Nation Science, Education and Culture Organisation

d) None of the above

ANSWER – United Nation Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organisations (UNESCO)

41) Expand UNHCR

a) United Nation Human Rights Commission

b) United Nation High Commission for Refugees

c) United Nation High Commissioner for Refugees

d) None of the above

ANSWER – United Nation High Commission for Refugees (UNHCR)

42) Which of the following is a main ambition of UN?

a) Coming generations should be free from wars

b) Friendly relationship to be developed among nations

c) Both A and B

d) None of the above

ANSWER – Both A and B

43) Expand UNHRC

a) United Nations High Commission for Refugees

b) United Nations Human Rights Commission

c) United Nations Human Rights Commissioner

d) None of the above

ANSWER – United Nations Human Rights Commission

We would love your reading of MCQs for CUET 2022 of other subjects which are as follow.

# MCQ Political Science CUET

# MCQ Political Science CUET With Answers

# MCQ Political Science CUET 2022

# MCQ Political Science CUET 2022-2023

# MCQ Political Science CUET Exam 2022

# MCQ Political Science CUET Sample Questions

# MCQ Political Science CUET Sample Questions with Answer Key

 

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