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MCQ of Physical Education CUET 2022-2023 With Answers 

MCQ of Planning in Sports

Question 1: Which of the following statements regarding planning is not accurate?

  1. Planning is the process of putting thoughts together in order to achieve the desired goal.
  2. Planning is usually interpreted as process to develop strategy in order to achieve desired purpose
  3. Planning is a process which let us reach our goals efficiently and smoothly
  4. All of these

Answer : All of these

Question 2: Which of the following is not the necessary objective of Planning?

  1. To maintain a efficient control over all undertakings
  2. To increase efficiency
  3. To increase the pressure of immediacy
  4. To enhance sports performance

Answer: C (To increase the pressure of immediacy)

Question 3: The committee which is headed by an administrative director and under whom all the executive committee performs its duties is commonly known as

  1. Announcement committee
  2. General committee
  3. Publicity committee
  4. Committee for refreshment and Entertainment

Answer: General Committee

Question 4: The primary aim of decoration and ceremony committee is

  1. The decoration of sports stadium
  2. Making necessary arrangements for opening ceremony
  3. Making arrangements for trophies, medals and certificates
  4. All of these

Answer: All of these

Question 5: Which committee is responsible for selecting various officials such as referees, judges, recorders and track umpires ?

  1. First aid committee
  2. Committee for officials
  3. Finance committee
  4. Reception committee

Answer: Committee for officials

Question 6: Which of the following responsibility is not performed before the commencement of the event ?

  1. To impart first aid to injured athletes
  2. To form the various committees
  3. To prepare the schedule of sports tournament
  4. To make necessary arrangement regarding boarding and lodging of sports persons

Answer: To impart first aid to injured athletes

Question 7: Round Robin tournament is also known as

  1. Challenge tournament
  2. League tournament
  3. Knock – out tournament
  4. Combination tournament

Answer: League tournament

Question 8: In which type of tournament a team once defeated, automatically gets eliminated from the tournament ?

  1. Challenge tournament
  2. League tournament
  3. Knock – out tournament
  4. Combination tournament

Answer: Knockout tournament

Question 9: Which one of the succeeding is an advantage of knockout tournament ?

  1. Every team gets maximum opportunity
  2. Sports and games can be build more popular
  3. Sports officials do not face any difficulty while determining appropriate players.
  4. Tournament gets completed in less time

Answer: Tournament gets completed in less time

Question 10: In _____ type of tournament defeated team does not get a second opportunity.

  1. Challenge tournament
  2. League tournament
  3. Knock – out tournament
  4. Combination tournament

Answer: Knockout tournament

Ad 199

Question 11: Which type of tournament is also cold Berger system ?

  1. Challenge tournament
  2. Combination tournament
  3. League tournament
  4. None of these

Answer: League tournament

Question 12: The accurate formula to calculate the number of matches in a double league tournament is

  1. N ( N – 1)
  2. N × ( N – 1 ) / 2 [ here N is number of teams ]
  3. N
  4. N – 1

Answer: N ( N – 1)

Question 13: When all the teams play their matches in their respective zones on league basis and the winner from each zone play their matches on knock-out basis then such type of tournament is called

  1. League cum League
  2. League cum knock-out
  3. Knock – out cum League
  4. None of these

Answer: League cum knock-out

Question 14: The accurate formula to calculate number of matches from the total number of teams is

  1. N
  2. N – 1
  3. N
  4. N × ( N – 1 ) / 2 [ here N is number of teams ]

Answer: N – 1

Question 15: Which type of tournament can be considered the best due to the ability to provide maximum number of opportunities to teams in order to show their best performance ?

  1. Knock out tournament
  2. Challenge tournament
  3. League tournament
  4. None of these

Answer: League tournament

Question 16: If 11 teams are taking part in a double League tournament then total number of matches will be

  1. 72 matches
  2. 55 matches
  3. 11 matches
  4. 110 matches

Answer: 110 matches

Question 17: Which one of the following statement is not accurate regarding a bye ?

  1. It is benefit given to a team do not play in initial rounds
  2. Teams which are chosen to give bye do not play in first round
  3. Both of these
  4. None of these

Answer: None of these

Question 18: The first bye is always given to

  1. The last team of the lower half
  2. The first team of the upper half
  3. The first team of the lower half
  4. The last team of the upper half

Answer: The last team of the lower half

Question 19: Calculate the number of byes to be given in total in upper half if the total number of teams participating in the event is 13 .

  1. 13 byes
  2. 7 byes
  3. 6 byes
  4. 1 bye

Answer: 1 Bye

Question 20: Calculate the number of teams to be kept in lower half if 9 teams are participating in a tournament.

  1. 5 teams
  2. 4 teams
  3. 6 teams
  4. 4.5 teams

Answer: 4 teams

Question 21: In which type of tournament the winner is always declared from the defeated teams since one additional chance is given to the defeated teams?

  1. Challenge tournament
  2. Knock – out tournament
  3. Consolation tournament
  4. League tournament

Answer: Consolation tournament

Question 22: What will be the total number of rounds if 5 teams are participating on league basis according to the cyclic method?

  1. 5 Rounds
  2. 4 Rounds
  3. 6 Rounds
  4. None of these

Answer: 5 Rounds

Question 23: In which of these methods fixtures are made just like a ladder ?

  1. Cyclic method
  2. Tabular method
  3. Consolation method
  4. Staircase method

Answer: Staircase method

Question 24: Consider a team plays 12 matches in a tournament and win 8 matches and 4 matches remain draw then the percentage of points will be ___ (to be calculated as British method)

  1. 83.3 %
  2. 66.6 %
  3. 90%
  4. 78%

Answer : 83.3 %

Question 25: What will be the number of teams to be kept in III quarter if 30 teams are participating in tournament ?

  1. 7 teams
  2. 8 teams
  3. 9 teams
  4. 6 teams

Answer: 8 teams

Question 26: If a team plays 9 games and wins 4 games in a tournament then according to American method it’s percentage of points will be

  1. 55.55  %
  2. 83 %
  3. 44.44  %
  4. 42 %

Answer: 44.44 %

Question 27: What will be the total number of matches if 8 teams are playing on league basis ?

  1. 56 matches
  2. 28 matches
  3. 72 matches
  4. None of these

Answer: 28 matches

Question 28: Which of the following statements regarding seeding method is accurate?

  1. This method is used in order to assure that strong team did not eliminate in preliminary rounds
  2. In a seeding method strong or deserving teams are chosen in order to keep them at appropriate
  3. place in the fixture.
  4. Number of seeded teams must be in the power of 2
  5. All of these

Answer: All of these

Question 29: Calculate the total number of rounds if 19 teams are participating in a knock out Tournament.

  1. 4 Rounds
  2. 6 Rounds
  3. 5 Rounds
  4. None of these

Answer: 5 Rounds

Question 30: How many byes will be given if total number of teams is 19?

  1. 5 Byes
  2. 13 Byes
  3. 17 Byes
  4. Number of byes to be calculated does not depend on number of teams

Answer: 13 Byes

Question 31: Works like making arrangements for serving meals to sportspersons and officials are done by

  1. Transportation committee
  2. Committee on entrance and programmes
  3. Reception committee
  4. Boarding and lodging committee

Answer: Boarding and lodging committee

Question 32: To select the appropriate method in order to organise a tournament depends upon

  1. Number of participating teams
  2. Types of facilities of ground equipment
  3. Number of officials available
  4. All of these

Answer: All of these

Question 33: Tournaments are helpful in selection of good players since

  1. By observing the performance of sportsmen, good players could be chosen
  2. Tournaments are helpful in publicising the sports
  3. It helps in national integration
  4. None of these

Answer: By observing the performance of sportsmen, good players could be chosen

Question 34: Fill in the blanks with the suitable option in context to the notice given below.

When _(i)___ are organised in absence of proper _(ii)__, there will be great _(iii)__ to achieve the desired results immediately. 

(i)

  1. Tournaments
  2. Competition
  3. None of these
  4. Both (A) and (B)

Answer: Both A and B

(ii)

  1. Number of participants
  2. Planning
  3. Goal
  4. Advice

Answer: Planning

(iii)

  1. Efficiency
  2. Creativity
  3. Pressure
  4. Coordination

Answer: Pressure 

Question 35: Which one of the following responsibilities are performed by the officials after the tournament ?

  1. To maintain proper discipline
  2. To make the payments to the officials 
  3. To collect all the record files
  4. Both (B) and (C)

Answer: Both (B) and (C)

Question 36: Tournaments can hep us in

  1. Selecting good players for upper level tournament
  2. Publicising the sports
  3. Developing international unity and brotherhood
  4. All of the above

Answer: All of the above

Question 37: Which of the following is a disadvantage of Knock out tournament?

  1. Tournament gets completed in less time
  2. It enhances the standard of sports
  3. There are greater chances of a weak team to enter the final round
  4. All of the above

Answer: There are great chances of a weak team to enter the final round

Question 38: ___ method of Robin round tournament is easiest since no team gets any bye. Moreover, there is no chances of odd and even number of teams.

  1. British Method
  2. Knock out Method
  3. Stair Case Method
  4. Cyclic Method

Answer: Stair Case Method

Question 39: What is the main work of publicity committee in the tournament?

  1. To publicise the date, venue and sports event and to provide advance information to various institutions
  2. To provide accommodation to the sportsperson
  3. To prepare the budget
  4. To allot number to the competitors

Answer: To publicise the date, venue and sports event and to provide advance information to various institutions

Question 40: Which type of tournament is less expensive due to less number of matches and minimum number of officials?

  1. League Tournament
  2. Robin Round Tournament
  3. Knock – out Tournament
  4. Consolation Tournament

Answer: Knock – out Tournament 

Question 41: Which of the following social traits are developed among sports participants through sports tournaments?

  1. Tolerance
  2. Sympathy
  3. Cooperation
  4. All of the above

Answer: All of the above 

MCQ of Sports and Nutrition

Question 1: Which of the following is not considered as a macronutrient ?

  1. Carbohydrates
  2. Protein
  3. Fats
  4. Minerals

Answer: Minerals

Question 2: Glucose, Fructose, Galactose, Maltose and Lactose are all examples of

  1. Complex Carbohydrates
  2. Proteins
  3. Simple Carbohydrates
  4. None of the above

Answer: Simple Carbohydrates

Question 3: Which one of the succeeding type of fats increases the chances of heart disease due to increase in amount of cholesterol in the blood?

  1. Saturated Fats
  2. Mono – unsaturated Fats
  3. Polyunsaturated Fats
  4. None of the above

Answer: Saturated Fats

Question 4: Amount of protein per pound of the ideal body weight required by the body is ___.

  1. 72 grams
  2. 36 grams
  3. 90 gram
  4. 13 grams

Answer: 0.36 grams

Question 5: The main function of water is to

  1.  Various cells of the body are transported nutrients with help of water
  2. Regulation of body temperature
  3. Excretion of waste products
  4. All of these

Answer: All of these

Question 6: How many amino acids must be available in diet ?

  1. 23 amino acids
  2. 9 amino acids
  3. 17 amino acids
  4. None of the above

Answer: 9 amino acids

Question 7: A diet rich in ___requires lesser amount of water in comparison to diet rich in proteins and fats.

  1. Vitamins
  2. Minerals
  3. Carbohydrates
  4. Calcium

Answer: Carbohydrates

Question 8: Which one of the succeeding statement regarding a balanced diet is not accurate?

  1. It consists of all essential nutrients in adequate amount.
  2. The proportion between different constituent of food is variable.
  3. Food should be according to the requirement of an individual
  4. None of the above

Answer: The proportion between different constituent of food is variable

Question 9: Which one of the following micro mineral helps us in blood clotting?

  1. Potassium
  2. Calcium
  3. Sodium
  4. Phosphorous

Answer: Calcium

Question 10: Deficiency of calcium results in

  1. Anaemia
  2. Night blindness
  3. Rickets
  4. Xerphthalmia

Answer: Rickets

Question 11: Which mineral helps iron in formation of haemoglobin ?

  1. Copper
  2. Chromium
  3. Cobalt
  4. Vitamin E

Answer: Copper

Question 12: : Liver , Meat , Egg and dry fruits are the main sources of

  1. Copper
  2. Iron
  3. Chromium
  4. None of the above

Answer: Iron
Question 13: Goitre is caused due to

  1. Lack of Iodine
  2. Lack of Copper
  3. Lack of Chromium
  4. Lack of sodium

Answer: Lack of Iodine
Question 14: Which one of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin?

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin C
  3. Vitamin D
  4. Vitamin E

Answer: Vitamin C
Question 15: Cod liver oil , animal liver , egg yolk , milk, mango , papaya and yellow vegetables are rich in

  1. Vitamin D
  2. Vitamin E
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin K

Answer: Vitamin A

Question 16: Which of the following vitamin is a white crystalline substance and helps in maintaining the normal functioning of parathormone and the level of calcium and phosphorus?

  1. Vitamin D
  2. Vitamin E
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin K

Answer: Vitamin D
Question 17: Which vitamin is an antioxidant and helps to slow down the process that damage cells?

  1. Vitamin D
  2. Vitamin E
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin K

Answer: Vitamin E
Question 18: Deficiency of ___ causes anaemia and ___ protects us from anaemia.

  1. Iron , Cobalt
  2. Cobalt , Iron
  3. Chromium , Potassium
  4. Calcium , Iron

Answer: Iron , Cobalt
Question 19: Which one of the succeeding vitamin is not soluble in water?

  1. Vitamin B1
  2. Vitamin C
  3. Vitamin B5
  4. None of the above

Answer: None of the above
Question 20: Vitamin B2 is also known as

  1. Niacin
  2. Riboflavin
  3. Thiamin
  4. Pantothenic

Answer: Riboflavin
Question 21: Which Vitamin is also known as ascorbic acid?

  1. Vitamin B1
  2. Vitamin C
  3. Vitamin B5
  4. Vitamin A

Answer: Vitamin C
Question 22: Which one of the following can not be considered as a constituent element of Fats?

  1. Carbon
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Oxygen
  4. Nitrogen

Answer: Nitrogen

Question 23: What is the ratio of hydrogen to oxygen atom in most of the carbohydrates?

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2:1
  3. 1:3
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2 : 1

Question 24: Deficiency of Vitamin C or ascorbic acid leads to a disease which is commonly known as

  1. Loss of leucocytes
  2. Scurvy
  3. Depression
  4. Constipation

Answer: Scurvy

Question 25: A balanced diet can be considered accurate when it will be

  1. Rich in minerals only
  2. Rich in Water only
  3. According to the requirements of individual
  4. Independent of proportion of nutrients

Answer: According to the requirements of individual

Question 26: Which one of the following is not a non nutritive component of diet ?

  1. Protein
  2. Fibre
  3. Water
  4. Both B and C

Answer: Both B and C

Question 27: Fats contain carbon, oxygen and hydrogen in the percentage of _ ,_ and _ respectively.

  1. 76, 12, 12
  2. 30, 35 , 35
  3. 12, 76, 12
  4. None of the above

Answer: 76, 12, 12

Question 28: Substance required by our body for our growth , energy and maintenance is commonly known as

  1. Nutrient
  2. Carbohydrates
  3. Protein
  4. Fats

Answer: Nutrient

Question 29: Which diet element should be increased from its normal value in the diet of body builder ?

  1. Minerals
  2. Carbohydrates
  3. Protein
  4. Fats

Answer: Protein

Question 30: Primary function of protein in our body is to

  1. Form new tissue and repair the broken tissue
  2. Excrete waste products
  3. Regulates the body temperature
  4. Lower the blood cholesterol

Answer: Form new tissue and repair the broken tissue

Question 31: All the succeeding are the nutrients found in our diet except

  1. Protein
  2. Carbohydrates
  3. Cellulose
  4. Fats

Answer: Cellulose

Question 32: Which nutrient is essential for supplying the body with energy?

  1. Protein
  2. Carbohydrates
  3. Fats
  4. Minerals

Answer: Carbohydrates

Question 33: The milk, cheese and yogurt group are important for

  1. Strong bones
  2. Teeth
  3. Muscles
  4. All of the above

Answer: All of the above

Question 34: Which one of the succeeding explains balanced diet accurately?

  1. A balanced diet has carbohydrates, protein and fats in the ratio of 2:3:1
  2. A diet that consists of carbohydrates, protein , fats , vitamin , mineral and water in adequate quantity and quality according to the requirements of individual
  3. It is greater of eating a particular food according to the taste of an individual
  4. It is possible only in certain cultures according to food items locally available

Answer: A diet that consists of carbohydrates, protein , fats , vitamin , mineral and water in adequate quantity and quality according to the requirements of individual

Question 35: Which among the succeeding is not a non nutritive components of diet?

  1. Roughage
  2. Flavour compounds
  3. Water
  4. Colour compounds

Answer: Water

Question 36: A healthy body weight is considered the one that is between

  1. 12 and 24
  2. Less than 18
  3. Between 19 and 25
  4. More than 19

Answer: Between 19 and 25

Question 37: Which food item contains carbohydrates and fats?

  1. Bread and butter
  2. Rice and pulses
  3. Potato and tomato
  4. Tomato and almond

Answer: Bread and butter

Question 38: Rickets is a disease caused by the deficiency of

  1. Sodium
  2. Potassium
  3. Calcium
  4. Magnesium

Answer: Calcium

Question 39: Which nutrient helps in muscle growth and repair of tissue?

  1. Carbohydrates
  2. Protein
  3. Fats
  4. Minerals

Answer: Protein

Question 40: A diet rich in saturated fats can be linked with …

  1. Kidney failure
  2. Bulimia
  3. Cardiovascular disease
  4. Anorexia

Answer: Cardiovascular disease

Question 41: Our body requires vitamins and minerals since

  1. They give the body energy
  2. They help to carry out metabolic reactions
  3. They insulate the body’s organ
  4. They withdraw heat from the body

Answer: They help to carry out metabolic reactions

Question 42: BMI of 29.2 signifies

  1. Underweight
  2. Normal weight
  3. Overweight
  4. Obesity Class I

Answer: Overweight

Question 43: Vitamin A was discovered by

  1. Albert Einstein
  2. Henrik dam
  3. Edward Mellanby
  4. Elmer McCollum

Answer: Elmer McCollum

Question 44: Vitamin B complex is made up of ___ types of vitamins.

  1. Seven
  2. Eight
  3. Five
  4. None of the above

Answer: Eight

Question 45: BMI refers to

  1. Body Mass Indication
  2. Body Measurement
  3. Body Mass Index
  4. None of the above

Answer: Body Mass Index

Question 46: Which of the following food myth is not stated correctly?

  1. Starve Yourself in order to lose weight
  2. Eggs decreases cholesterol level
  3. Exercise makes you eat more
  4. Potatoes make you fat

Answer: Eggs decreases cholesterol level

Question 47: Food intolerance refers to

  1. Particular elements of certain food that cannot be properly processed and absorbed by digestive system of our body
  2. Side effects of dieting
  3. Sudden increase in weight of an individual
  4. None of the above

Answer: Particular elements of certain food that cannot be properly processed and absorbed by digestive system of our body

Question 48: Which one of the following statement is not accurate?

  1. Amount of calories intake does not matter when an individual is on diet
  2. Labelled food does not satisfies the nutrient requirements of an individual’s body.
  3. In order to loose weight exercise is also necessary along with dieting
  4. None of the above

Answer: Amount of calories intake does not matter when an individual is on diet

Question 49: The component of food which is present in sugar is 

  1. Protein
  2. Carbohydrates
  3. Fats
  4. Vitamins

Answer: Carbohydrates

Question 50: In most organisms, the  living material contains 80% of which of the following substance?

  1. Protein
  2. Carbohydrates
  3. Fats
  4. Vitamins

Answer: Protein 

MCQ of Children and Women in Sports

Question 1: The period of early childhood is

  1. From 3 to 6 years
  2. From 11 to 12 years
  3. From 7 to 10 years
  4. From 1 to 11 years

Answer: From 3 to 6 years

Question 2: Exercises such as to develop head control, sitting , crawling should be encouraged in which stage of motor development?

  1. Early childhood
  2. Adolescence
  3. Infancy
  4. Later childhood

Answer: Infancy

Question 3: In which period or stage of motor development emphasis should be laid on participation rather than on competition?

  1. Adolescence
  2. Infancy
  3. Later childhood
  4. Early childhood

Answer: Early childhood

Question 4: Which one of the following is not a type of spinal curvature deformity ?

  1. Kyphosis
  2. Round shoulder
  3. Scoliosis
  4. Lordosis

Answer: Round Shoulder

Question 5: The inward curvature of the spine is commonly known as

  1. Kyphosis
  2. Round shoulder
  3. Scoliosis
  4. Lordosis

Answer: Lordosis

Question 6: Which one of the succeeding is not the cause of Kyphosis?

  1. Malnutrition
  2. Rickets
  3. Obesity
  4. Carrying heavy loads on shoulders

Answer: Obesity

Question 7: Which exercise should be taken into consideration in order to improve flat foot deformity?

  1. Avoid high heeled shoes
  2. Avoid carrying heavy weight
  3. Don’t force babies to start walking at a very early stage
  4. All of the above

Answer: All of the above

Question 8: Bow legs is also known as

  1. Gena Valgum
  2. Gena Varum
  3. Scapula
  4. None of the above

Answer: Gena Varum

Question 9: Which deformity is just opposite to knock knee position?

  1. Round shoulder
  2. Flat foot
  3. Knock knees
  4. Scoliosis

Answer: Knock knees

Question 10: Bow legs is caused due to deficiency of two main macro minerals in bones .These are

  1. Potassium and Sodium
  2. Calcium and Phosphorus
  3. Phosphorus and Magnesium
  4. None of the above

Answer: Calcium and Phosphorus

Question 11: Which asana worked as remedy for round shoulder deformity?

  1. Vajrasan
  2. Chakrasana
  3. Dhanurasana
  4. Both B and C

Answer: Both B and C

Question 12: Fine motor development is linked with

  1. Large muscles in child’s body
  2. Small muscles of the body
  3. Both of these
  4. None of these

Answer: Small muscles of the body

Question 13: Which one of the following is not related to gross motor development?

  1. Sitting
  2. Walking
  3. Smashing a volleyball
  4. Climbing

Answer: Smashing a volleyball

Question 14: Which factor discussed below has no negative impact on motor development of child?

  1. Sensory impairment
  2. Obesity
  3. Balanced diet
  4. Postural deformities

Answer: Balanced diet

Question 15: Reyansh is a 15 year old boy who can not walk properly since he was forced to work at an early age. Moreover, there is a wide gap between his knees when he stand with feet together.
(i)Which postal deformity did Reyansh have?

  1. Round shoulders
  2. Bow legs
  3. Knock knees
  4. None of the above

Answer: Bow legs

(ii) Which vitamin can work as remedy of bow legs?

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin D
  3. Vitamin E
  4. Vitamin K

Answer: Vitamin D

(iii) What could be the another cause of this postural deformity?

  1. Anaemia
  2. Deficiency of calcium and phosphorus
  3. Improper way of walking
  4. Both B and C

Answer: Both B and C

Question 16: Some of the precautions regarding round shoulders are listed below; which of the following precautions is not related to the round shoulders deformity?

  1. Don’t let the children be overweight
  2. Avoid tight fitting clothes
  3. Avoid sitting on uncomfortable furniture
  4. Don’t walk or stand in bent position

Answer: Don’t let the children be overweight

Question 17: Which asana is not a corrective measures for bow legs?

  1. Ardhmatseyendrasana
  2. Garudasana
  3. Ardha chakrasana
  4. Padmasana

Answer: Padmasana

Question 18: Keeping a pillow between knees and standing straight is a corrective measure for which one of the following postural deformity?

  1. Knock knees
  2. Bow legs
  3. Scoliosis
  4. None of the above

Answer: Knock knees

Question 19: In which Olympics did women participate for the first time?

  1. 1905
  2. 1900
  3. 1896
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1900

Question 20: Who was the first Indian woman to score a bronze medal in weightlifting in Sydney Olympic games in 2000 ?

  1. Jwala Gutta
  2. Anju B George
  3. Karnam Malleshwari
  4. Heena Sidhu

Answer: Karnam Malleshwari

Question 21: In which Olympic games Saina Nehwal and MC Mary Kom added feather in cap of India by securing won bronze medal each ?

  1. 2000 Sydney Olympic games
  2. 2008 Beijing Olympic games
  3. 2012 London Olympic games
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2012 London Olympic games

Question 22: Which one of the succeeding is responsible for less participation of women in sports?

  1. Lack of interest of spectators and no coverage of women’s sport
  2. Male-dominated culture of sports
  3. Lack of female sports persons as role models
  4. All of the above

Answer: All of the above

Question 23: Which country was the first to pass a legislation  to provide financial aid to all educational institution such that women are provided with equal opportunities in order to participate in sports at all levels?

  1. India
  2. United States of America
  3. Sydney
  4. Russia

Answer: United States of America

Question 24: Rahul a physical education teacher at XYZ Public school observed that Raju a student of class 6 has an increase or exaggreation of backward or posterior curve. He suggested the later to rectify this deformity.
(i)What is this deformity commonly known as?

  1. Lordosis
  2. Scoliosis
  3. Kyphosis
  4. None of the above

Answer: Kyphosis

(ii) This deformity is also known as

  1. Hollow back
  2. Round upperback
  3. Lordosis
  4. Genu varum

Answer: Round upperback

(iii) The deformity that Raju had is related to?

  1. Shoulder
  2. Foot
  3. Vertebral Column
  4. Legs

Answer: Vertebral Column

Question 25: Hunch on the back is generally known as

  1. Lordosis
  2. Scoliosis
  3. Kyphosis
  4. None of the above

Answer: Kyphosis

Question 26: Which one of the following is not a cause of flat foot deformity?

  1. Rapid increase in body weight
  2. Improper shoes
  3. Carrying heavy weight for a long period of time
  4. Deficiency of Calcium, phosphorus and Vitamin D in the diet

Answer: Deficiency of Calcium, phosphorus and Vitamin D in the diet

Question 27: Horse Riding can work as a corrective measure for which of the following post rural deformity?

  1. Bow legs
  2. Round shoulder
  3. Knock knees
  4. None of the above

Answer: Knock knees

Question 28: Since ancient times, the women participation in sports and games is understood as?

  1. Inappropriate
  2. Appropriate
  3. Inferior
  4. Both (A) and (C)

Answer: Inappropriate

Question 29: In which stage of life an individual should perform activities that help to increase their muscular and bone strength  ?

  1. Later childhood
  2. Adolescene
  3. Adulthood
  4. Early childhood

Answer: Adulthood 

Question 30: The deformity shown in the given figure represents 

  1. Kyphosis
  2. Lordosis
  3. Scoliosis
  4. None of the above

Answer: Lordosis

MCQ of Test and Measurement in Sports

Question 1: AAHPERD stands for

  1. Australian Alliance for Health, Physical education , Recreation and Dance
  2. Australian Alliance for Health, Physical education , Recreation and Dance
  3. American Alliance for Health, Physical Education, Recreation and Dance
  4. None of the above

Answer: American Alliance for Health, Physical Education, Recreation and Dance

Question 2: Which one of the following is not included in AAHPERD young fitness test 1975?

  1. 50 yard dash
  2. Flexed leg sit ups
  3. 600 yard run walk
  4. Medicine ball put

Answer: Medicine ball put

Question 3: The test used to measure fitness of senior citizens is ___.

  1. Harvard step test
  2. Rikli and Jones fitness test
  3. General motor fitness test
  4. Borrow motor fitness test

Answer: Rikli and Jones fitness test

Question 4: Which one of the following is not considered a part of Rikli and Jones senior citizen fitness test?

  1. Chair stand test
  2. Arm curl test
  3. 1 mile walk test
  4. Back scratch test

Answer: 1 mile walk test

Question 5: What should be the height of chair required in chair sit and reach test ?

  1. 40 cm
  2. 44 cm
  3. 42 cm
  4. None of the above

Answer: 44 cm

Question 6: The purpose of which of the following test is to measure explosive power of legs?

  1. 4 × 10 m shuttle run
  2. Modified push ups for girls
  3. Standing broad jump
  4. Partial curl ups

Answer: Standing broad jump

Question 7: Which among the following test is widely used as a normal test to assess flexibility?

  1. Sit and Reach test
  2. Partial curl up test
  3. 50 m dash test
  4. None of the above

Answer: Sit and Reach test

Question 8: Partial Curl up test is used

  1. To measure the explosive power of legs
  2. The upper body strength and endurance is measured by this test
  3. To determine or measure speed
  4. The strength and endurance of abdominal muscles is measured with the help of this test

Answer: The strength and endurance of abdominal muscles is measured with the help of this test

Question 9: Which one of the following is used to measure cardiovascular fitness?

  1. Chair stand test
  2. Harvard Step test
  3. Rockport one mile test
  4. Both B and C

Answer: Both B and C

Question 10: Modified push ups is measured for

  1. Boys
  2. Volleyball players
  3. Girls
  4. Cricket players

Answer: Girls

Question 11: Which one of the following is not linked accurately ?

  1. Arm Curl Test – A test to measure the upper body strength
  2. Chair sit and reach test – A test to assess the upper body flexibility
  3. Chair stand test – A test to measure the lower body strength
  4. Eight foot up and go test – A test to evaluate speed and agility

Answer: Chair sit and reach test – A test to assess the upper body flexibility

Question 12: In which year Rikli and Jones senior citizen test was discovered ?

  1. 1990
  2. 2000
  3. 2001
  4. 2002

Answer: 2001

Question 13: Harvard Step test is also called as

  1. Rockport fitness walking test
  2. Chair stand test
  3. Jump up and down test
  4. Aerobic fitness test

Answer: Aerobic fitness test

Question 14: In the back scratch test if the finger tips touch each other then the score will be

  1. Negative
  2. Zero
  3. Positive
  4. None of the above

Answer: Zero

Question 15: The process of collecting the data about a specific skill , strength , endurance , knowledge and behaviour is generally known as

  1. Capacity
  2. Measure
  3. Test
  4. Evaluation

Answer: Test

Question 16: The process of administrating a test in order to obtain a quantitative data is called as

  1. Tests
  2. Measurement
  3. Planning
  4. Coaching

Answer: Measurement

Question 17: An athlete speed or acceleration is measured by

  1. Modified push ups for girls
  2. Standing long jump
  3. 600 yard run walk
  4. 50 m standing start

Answer: 50 m standing start

Question 18: Which one of the succeeding is a disadvantage of Harvard Step test?

  1. It requires maximum cost
  2. The height of the box remains constant for both tall and short individuals
  3. It is complicated to set up and conduct
  4. It does not measure cardiovascular fitness

Answer: The height of the box remains constant for both tall and short individuals

Question 19: In chair Stand test of Rikli and Jones senior citizen fitness test the score is taken as the total number of completed chairs change during the given ___.

  1. 30 seconds
  2. 60 seconds
  3. 40 seconds
  4. 45 seconds

Answer: 30 seconds

Question 20: What weight should be required for women to hold in Arm Curl Test of Rikli and Jones senior citizen fitness test?

  1. 8 pound
  2. 6 pound
  3. 7 pound
  4. 5 pound

Answer: 5 pound

Question 21: What weight should be required for men to hold in Arm Curl Test of Rikli and Jones senior citizen fitness test?

  1. 8 pound
  2. 6 pound
  3. 7 pound
  4. 5 pound

Answer: 8 pound

Question 22: Standing board jump helps to develop ___ muscles.

  1. Back
  2. Lower body
  3. Upper body
  4. Abdominal

Answer: Lower body

Question 23: Eight foot up and go test is conducted to check the coordination and agility in

  1. Children
  2. Adolscent
  3. Aged people
  4. Youth

Answer: Aged people

Question 24: Which one of the following can not be considered as a variable in calculating VO2 max according to the formula of Rockport One mile test?

  1. Body weight
  2. Age
  3. Gender
  4. Height

Answer: Height

Question 25: The height of the box or gym bench used for women in Harvard Step test is

  1. 20 inches
  2. 16 inches
  3. 24 inches
  4. None of the above

Answer: 16 inches

Question 26: The height of the box or gym bench used for men in Harvard Step test is

  1. 20 inches
  2. 16 inches
  3. 24 inches
  4. None of the above

Answer: 20 inches

Question 27: Which one of the following instructions is not stated accurately according to the chair stand test?

  1. Back of the individual should be erect
  2. Feet of the individual should be flat on the floor
  3. Participant should sit at the corner edge of the chair
  4. Participant should keep his hand on the opposite shoulder crossed at the wrists

Answer: Participant should sit at the corner edge of the chair

Question 28: Which component of senior citizen fitness is tested with the help of six minute walk test?

  1. Lower body strength
  2. Aerobic endurance
  3. Balance
  4. Upper body strength

Answer: Aerobic endurance

Question 29: The aim of fitness index score is to measure

  1. Overall fitness and health
  2. Running strength
  3. Heart rate
  4. Aerobic fitness

Answer: Overall fitness and health

Question 30: The senior fitness test does not includes ___

  1. Chair stand test
  2. Arm curl test
  3. Sit and reach test
  4. Partial curl up test

Answer: Partial curl up test 

MCQ of Biomechanics and Sports

Question 1: Which among the following is not the importance of biomechanics?

  1. Improvement of sports technique
  2. Provides information about the structure of movement and the nature of forces acting on the movement
  3. Understanding about the physiology of human body
  4. Improvement of sports Equipments

Answer: Understanding about the physiology of human body

Question 2: The type of motion that occurs only between the long bones and wherein the angle between two bones is increased or decreased?

  1. Circumduction
  2. Angular movement
  3. Gliding movement
  4. Rotation

Answer: Angular movement

Question 3: The type of movement where in bone moves around a central axis without itself undergoing any displacement from the central axis is generally known as

  1. Hyperextension
  2. Dorsiflexion
  3. Inversion
  4. Rotation

Answer: Rotation

Question 4: Protraction refers to

  1. Moving a part backward
  2. Moving a part forward
  3. Turning the hand in such a way that palm is upward
  4. Bending the foot at the ankle towards the chin

Answer: Moving a part forward

Question 5: The circular motion which combines various motion such as flexion, Extension, Adduction and Abduction is commonly known as

  1. Inversion
  2. Elevation
  3. Circumduction
  4. None of the above

Answer: Circumduction

Question 6: A swimmer is able to swim when he pushes the water backward. Which law of Newton is directly linked with it ?

  1. Newton’s first law of motion
  2. Newton’s second law of motion
  3. Newton’s third law of motion
  4. Law of inertia

Answer: Newton’s third law of motion

Question 7: The opposing force that occurs when one body is sliding over the surface of another body is generally known as

  1. Rolling friction
  2. Sliding friction
  3. Static friction
  4. None of the above

Answer: Sliding friction

Question 8: Which among the following is an example of Law of inertia?

  1. Starting in throwing the hammer
  2. Starting in sprinting
  3. Starting in rowing
  4. All of the above

Answer: All of the above

Question 9: Which among the following is an example of law of reaction ?

  1. Dribbing in basketball
  2. Walking
  3. Swimming
  4. All of the above

Answer: All of the above

Question 10: Which one of the following is not considered as the law of motion?

  1. Law of inertia
  2. Law of reaction
  3. Law of gravity
  4. Law of acceleration

Answer: Law of gravity

Question 11: Biomechanics usually deals with

  1. Movement of muscles involved in our body
  2. Understanding of the physiology of the body
  3. Understanding of various mechanical exercises to correct our deformity
  4. Effect of forces on different movements performed by the human body

Answer: Effect of forces on different movements performed by the human body

Question 12: Opening of hand side wise in such a way that your hands moves away from the midline of the body is generally known as

  1. Flexion
  2. Extension
  3. Abduction
  4. Adduction

Answer: Abduction

Question 13: Newton’s second law of motion is also popularise as

  1. Law of inertia
  2. Law of acceleration
  3. Law of action reaction
  4. Law of velocity

Answer: Law of acceleration

Question 14: Newton’s third law of motion is also popularise as

  1. Law of inertia
  2. Law of acceleration
  3. Law of action reaction
  4. Law of velocity

Answer: Law of action reaction

Question 15: Which Newton’s law work in the long jump take off__

  1. Law of conservation of mass
  2. Law of inertia
  3. Law of acceleration
  4. Law of action reaction

Answer: Law of action reaction

Question 16: Biomechanics refers to the study of internal and external forces and their effects on ___

  1. The field
  2. The athlete
  3. The environment
  4. All of the above

Answer: The athlete

Question 17: Which one of the succeeding statement is not accurate?

  1. Flexion is the movement in the Sagittal plane that decreases the angle at the moving joint
  2. Flexion is the movement in the frontal plane that decreases the angle at the moving joint
  3. Extension is the opposite of flexion which increases angle at the moving joint
  4. None of the above

Answer: Flexion is the movement in the frontal plane that decreases the angle at the moving joint

Question 18: Adduction and Abduction movements refers to

  1. Moving the body part towards and away from the midline respectively
  2. Moving the body part away and towards from the midline respectively
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of the above

Answer: Moving the body part towards and away from the midline respectively

Question 19: In which of the following games friction acts as a disadvantageous part?

  1. Racing
  2. Gymnastics
  3. Cycling
  4. None of the above

Answer: Cycling

Question 20: The laws of motion were formulated by

  1. Alexander
  2. Harvard
  3. Newton
  4. None of the above

Answer: Newton

Question 21: __ is defined as resistance to the motion which is caused by contact between the two surfaces.

  1. Friction
  2. Repulsion
  3. Gravitation
  4. None of the above

Answer: Friction

Question 22: The force produced when surface of two objects comes into contact with each other and tends to move but there is no relative motion between the objects is generally known as

  1. Rolling friction
  2. Sliding friction
  3. Fluid friction
  4. Static friction

Answer: Static friction

Question 23: In cricket, greater is the force exerted by the bat on the ball higher would be the speed of the ball towards the boundary. Which law of Newton is associated with this application?

  1. Newton’s first law of motion
  2. Newton’s second law of motion
  3. Newton’s third law of motion
  4. None of the above

Answer: Newton’s second law of motion

Question 24: In swimming If a swimmer pushes the water faster in the backward direction than he would be propelled faster in the forward direction . Which law of Newton is associated with this application?

  1. Newton’s first law of motion
  2. Newton’s second law of motion
  3. Newton’s third law of motion
  4. None of the above

Answer: Newton’s third law of motion

Question 25: Which of the following measures can be considered as an accurate way to reduce friction?

  1. Presence of spikes on the soles of football shoes
  2. Application of chalk powder on the hand and feet by gymnasts
  3. Use of narrow boats in rowing
  4. None of the above

Answer: Application of chalk powder on the hand and feet by gymnasts

We would love your reading of MCQs for CUET 2022 of other subjects which are as follow.

 

# MCQ Physical Education CUET

# MCQ Physical Education CUET 2022

# MCQ Physical Education CUET 2022-2023

# MCQ Physical Education CUET for Central Universities

# MCQ Physical Education CUET With Answers

# MCQ Physical Education CUET 

 

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