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MCQ of Economics CUET | Common University Entrance Test |

 

MCQ of Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence

Q1. Agriculture was exploited through _____ system of land revenue.
a. Ryotwari
b. Zamindari
c. Mahalwari
d. None of these
Answer : Zamindari

Q2. Who were declared as owners of the soil, under colonial exploitation of Indian agriculture sector?
a. Tillers
b. Zamindars
c. People of main government
d. None of these
Answer : Zamindars

Q3. Who got bare minimum for survival under colonial exploitation of Indian agriculture sector?
a. Tillers
b. Zamindars
c. Government
d. Public
Answer: Tillers

Q4. Who spent their revenue income on the luxurious of life, under colonial exploitation of Indian agriculture sector?
a. Tillers
b. Zamindars
c. Government
d. Public
Answer : Zamindars

Q5. Before the destruction by the British government, Indians _____enjoyed a World Wide reputation for their variety and quality.
a. International trade
b. Handicrafts
c. Agriculture sector
d. Service sector
Answer : Handicrafts

Q6. Which economy shows little Or no growth in income?
a. Backward
b. Stagnant
c. Mixed
d. Capital
Answer : Stagnant

Q7. Which of the following economy has low per capita income?
a. Backward
b. Stagnant
c. Mixed
d. Semi – feudal
Answer : Backward

Q8. Which of the following are features of Indian economy?
a. Stagnant economy
b. Backward economy
c. Poor infrastructure
d. All of these
Answer : All of these

Q9. On the eve of independence, Indian economy was a _____ economy.
a. Feudal
b. Semi – feudal
c. Capitalist
d. None of these
Answer: Semi – feudal

Q10. Who was the notable economist that estimated India’s national and per capita income?
a. Adam Smith
b. Milton Friedman
c. Joseph E. Stiglitz
d. William Digby
Answer: William Digby

Q11. _____ farming is a form of farming in which the crops are produced to provide for the basic needs of the family.
a. Organic farming
b. Subsistence farming
c. Commercial farming
d. Nomadic farming
Answer : Subsistence farming

Q12. Which of the following characteristic was not revealed by Indian agricultural sector on the eve of independence?
a. Forced commercialization of agriculture
b. High degree of uncertainty
c. Systematic land holdings
d. Dominance of subsistence farming
Answer: Systematic land holdings

Q13. Commercialization of agriculture refers to
a. Shift from cultivation for the market to cultivation for self – consumption
b. Increasing the man power in the agriculture work
c. Subsistence farming
d. Shift from cultivation for self – consumption to cultivation for the market
Answer: Shift from cultivation for self – consumption to cultivation for the market

Q14. Farmers were forced for cultivation of _____ crops 
a. Rice
b. Wheat
c. Indigo
d. Maize
Answer: Indigo

Q15. In how many sectors is the occupational structure of India divided?
a. six
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
Answer : Three

Q17. Service sector is also called _____
a. Tertiary 
b. Primary
c. Secondary
d. Agriculture
Answer : Tertiary

Q18. The nature of the Indian economy on the eve of independence was
a. Stagnant
b. Backward
c. Underdeveloped
d. All of these
Answer: All of these

Q19. The life expectancy at birth in India on the eve of Independence was
a. 44 years
b. 50 years
c. 60 years
d. 75 years
Answer : 44 years

Q20. The growth rate of per capita income in India on the eve of Independence was
a. 0.9%
b. 0.5%
c. 1.2%
d. 3%
Answer : 0.5%

Q21. Which of the following activities are included in the primary sector?
a. Agriculture
b. Service
c. Industries
d. All of these
Answer: Agriculture

Q22. Manufacturing activity is included in _____ sector.
a. Primary
b. Tertiary
c. Secondary
d. All of these
Answer : Secondary

Q23. The first iron and steel company was established in _____
a. Kolkata
b. Jamshedpur
c. Patna
d. Ranchi
Answer : Jamshedpur

Q24. The tax or duty on imports is called 
a. Tariff
b. Quota
c. Export
d. None of these
Answer : Tariff

Q25. Which of the following was the major occupation on the eve of independence?
a. Industry
b. Service
c. Agriculture
d. None of these
Answer : Agriculture

Q26. The second stage of demographic transition began after ________ in India.
a. 1920
b. 1921
c. 1922
d. 1931
Answer : 1921

Q27. Indian economy served as a source of _______ for the British industry and a market for its finished goods.
a. Financial help
b. Natural resources
c. Raw material
d. None of these
Answer: Raw material

Q28. ______ were developed by the British raj as a means to enlarge the size of the market for the British goods.
a. Ships
b. Railways
c. Roadways
d. Bicycles
Answer: Railways

Q29. In which year did the British introduced the railways in India?
a. 1845
b. 1850
c. 1867
d. 1885
Answer: 1850

Q30. The ________ sector accounted for 17.2 percent of the working population on the eve of Independence.
a. Industry
b. Service
c. Agriculture
d. None of these
Answer: Service

Q31. India’s first official census was undertaken in the year _____
a. 1880
b. 1888
c. 1881
d. 1887
Answer : 1881

Q32. The country’s growth of aggregate real output was less than ______ during the first half of the twentieth century.
a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 4%
d. 5%
Answer: 2%

Q33. In which year was Suez Canal opened in 
a. 1864
b. 1869
c. 1880
d. 1854
Answer: 1869

Q34. Backwardness of Indian agriculture on the eve of Independence is explained in terms of
a. Gulf between the owners of the soil and the tillers of the soil
b. Low production and low productivity
c. Forced commercialization of agriculture
d. Land revenue system
Answer: Low production and low productivity

Q35. Stagnation of Indian agriculture on the eve of Independence is explained in terms of :
a. High degree of uncertainty
b. Dominance of subsistence farming
c. Small and fragmented holdings
d. Forced commercialization of agriculture
Answer: Forced commercialization of agriculture

MCQ of Indian Reforms Since 1991

Q1. ____ refer to a set of economic policies directed to accelerate the pace of growth and development.
a. Economic development
b. Economic guideline
c. Economic Reforms
d. Economic principles

Answer: Economic Reforms

Q2. When did the government of India initiate a series of economic reforms?
a. 1990
b. 1991
c. 1992
d. 1994

Answer : 1991

Q3. Economic reforms came to be known as
a. Economic policy
b. New Economic Power (NEP)
c. New Economic Policy( NEP)
d. None of these

Answer: New Economic Policy (NEP)

Q4. Three broad components of NEP are 
a. Licensing , patrolling, globalisation
b. Liberalisation, patrolling, commercialisation
c. Liberalisation, privatisation, globalisation
d. None of these
Answer : Liberalisation, Privatisation, Globalisation

Q5. LPG was set to replace ____
a. LQR
b. LQY
c. LPR
d. LQP
Answer: LQP

Q6. The policy of liberalisation was brought in place of ____ for the industries and trade.
a. Livelihood
b. Quotas
c. Licensing
d. Permits
Answer: Licensing

Q7. The policy of privatisation was brought in place of____ for the industrialists.
a. Livelihood
b. Quotas
c. Licensing
d. Permits
Answer: Quotas

Q8. The policy of____  was brought in place of permits for exports and imports.
a. Liberalisation
b. Privatisation
c. Licensing
d. Globalisation
Answer: Globalisation

Q9. Need for NEP or economic reforms was felt owing to :
a. Rise in foreign exchange reserves
b. BoP Crises
c. High fiscal Deficit
d. Both b and c
Answer: Both b and c

Q10. Liberalisation of the economy means:
a. Freedom of the selling anything from direct or physical controls imposed by the government
b. Freedom of the producing units from direct or physical controls imposed by the government
c. the process of involving the private sector in the ownership or operation of a state owned enterprise
d. a process associated with increasing openness, growing economic interdependence and deepening economic integration in the world economy.
Answer : Freedom of the producing units from direct or physical controls imposed by the government

Q11. Globalisation refers to :
a. Freedom of the selling anything from direct or physical controls imposed by the government
b. Freedom of the producing units from direct or physical controls imposed by the government
c. the process of involving the private sector in the ownership or operation of a state owned enterprise
d. a process associated with increasing openness, growing economic interdependence and deepening economic integration in the world economy .
Answer: A process associated with increasing openness, growing economic interdependence and deepening economic integration in the world economy.

Q12. The process of involving the private sector in the ownership or operation of a state owned enterprise is known as
a. Liberalisation
b. Privatisation
c. Licensing
d. Globalisation
Answer: Privatisation

Q13. Economic Reforms were based on the assumption that ____ would drive the economy towards the path of competitive growth and development.
a. Government
b. Market forces
c. Public
d. Foreign leaders
Answer: Market forces

Q14. Economic reforms under liberalisation do not include :
a. Industrial sector reforms
b. Public sector reforms
c. Financial sector reforms
d. Fiscal sector reforms
Answer: Public sector reforms

Q15. In which reforms Abolition of industrial licensing, contraction of public sector, are included?
a. Industrial sector reforms
b. Public sector reforms
c. Financial sector reforms
d. Fiscal sector reforms
Answer : Industrial Sector reforms

Q16. Banking and non-banking financial institutions, stock exchange market, foreign exchange market are included in which reforms?
a. Industrial sector reforms
b. Public sector reforms
c. Financial sector reforms
d. Fiscal sector reforms
Answer: Financial sector reforms

Q17. Who regulates and controls the Financial Sector in India?
a. Local banks
b. RBI
c. Public
d. Political parties
Answer: RBI

Q18. Liberalisation implied a sustainable shift in the role of the RBI from ____ to____
a. a facilitator to a regulator
b. a regulator to a facilitator
c. a producer to a seller
d. a seller to a producer
Answer : A regulator to a facilitator

Q19. Which of the following are the examples of Foreign Institutional Investors?
a. RBI
b. Merchant bankers
c. Mutual funds
d. Both b and c
Answer: Both b and c

Q20. Fiscal policy refers to ____ policy of the government
a. Money
b. Revenue and expenditure
c. Capital investing
d. None of these
Answer: Revenue and Expenditure

Q21. Principal components of fiscal reforms are :
a. Foreign exchange reforms
b. Foreign trade policy reforms
c. Tax reforms
d. None of these
Answer : Tax Reforms

Q22. Example of direct taxes are 
a. Income tax
b. GST
c. Wealth tax
d. Both a and c
Answer : Both a and c

Q23. Foreign exchange reforms and foreign trade policy reforms are included in:
a. Industrial sector reforms
b. Financial sector reforms
c. Fiscal reforms
d. External sector reforms
Answer: External Sector Reforms

Q24. Foreign exchange reforms were initiated in ____
a. 1989
b. 1990
c. 1991
d. 1992
Answer : 1991

Q25. ____ implies Lowering the value of our currency in relation to other currencies of the world.
a. Depreciation
b. Depression
c. Devaluation
d. Revaluation
Answer: Devaluation

Q26. Foreign trade policy underwent a sustainable change in the wake of ____
a. Liberalisation
b. Privatisation
c. Licensing
d. Globalisation
Answer: Liberalisation

Q27. What is outsourcing?
a. It refers to thinking before hand
b. It refers to selling off share capital of PSUs to the private entrepreneurs
c. It refers to a system of hiring business services from the outside world
d. None of these
Answer : It refers to a system of hiring business services from the outside world

Q28. What is disinvestment?
a. It refers to thinking before hand
b. It refers to selling off share capital of PSUs to the private entrepreneurs
c. It refers to a system of hiring business services from the outside world
d. None of these
Answer : It refers to selling off share capital of PSUs to the private entrepreneurs

Q29. Which of the following is the example of indirect tax?
a. Income tax
b. Wealth tax
c. Goods and service tax
d. None of these
Answer : Goods and service tax

Q30. Which generation reforms do not require any legislative action?
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth
Answer : First

Q31. Which generation reforms require legislative action?
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth
Answer : Second

Q32. ____ refers to those set of measures which affect the entire economy and are therefore, pervasive in nature.
a. Macroeconomic stabilisation
b. Microeconomic structural adjustments
c. Microeconomic stabilisation
d. Macroeconomic structural adjustments
Answer : Macroeconomic Stabilisation

Q33. Tariff barriers mainly refer to
a. Quota – barriers
b. Barriers on exports
c. Barriers on imports through high import duty
d. None of these
Answer : Barriers on imports through high import duty

Q34. Which of the following highlights the negative impacts of LPG policies in India?
a. Vibrant economy
b. A shift from monopoly market to competitive market
c. Spread of consumerism
d. Flow of private foreign investment
Answer : Spread of consumerism

Q35. Privatisation implies supremacy of ____
a. Social interest over self interest
b. Self interest over social interest
c. Social issues over self issues
d. Self issues over social issues
Answer : Self interest over social interest

Q36. Diversification of production is promoted through
a. Liberalisation
b. Privatisation
c. Licensing
d. Globalisation
Answer: Privatisation

Q37. Bilateral trade agreements refer to 
a. Trade agreements of one state with the other
b. Trade agreements of one country with many countries of the world
c. Trade agreements of one country with the other
d. Trade agreements between two sole proprietors
Answer : Trade agreements of one country with the other

Q38. Multilateral trade agreements refer to
a. Trade agreements of one state with the other
b. Trade agreements of one country with many countries of the world
c. Trade agreements of one country with the other
d. Trade agreements between two sole proprietors
Answer : Trade agreements of one country with many countries of the world

MCQ of Human Capital Formation

Q1. Human capital refers to the stock of ____ of a nation at a point of time
a. Exports items
b. Imports items
c. Skill and expertise
d. None of these
Answer: Skill and expertise

Q2. ____ is the process of acquiring and increasing the number of persons who have the skill, education and experience which are essential for the economic and political development of a country.
a. Human capital formation
b. Physical capital formation
c. Financial capital formation
d. Both a and b
Answer : Human capital formation

Q3. Sources of human capital formation involve
a. Expenditure on education
b. Expenditure on health
c. Migration
d. All of these
Answer: All of these

Q4. ____ is known as the ability to read and write.
a. Education
b. Human capital
c. Literacy
d. Human development
Answer: Literacy

Q5. As per census 2011, the literacy rate in rural India is about 
a. 72%
b. 45%
c. 69%
d. 56%
Answer: 69%

Q6. What is the percentage of Female literacy in India?
a. 66%
b. 81%
c. 89%
d. 70%
Answer : 66%

Q7. Migration of skilled manpower to developed countries of the world is known as 
a. Migration
b. Human capital
c. Brain drain
d. Decentralization
Answer : Brain drain

Q8. Merit of human capital formation includes 
a. Improves technical knowledge
b. Enlarges the size of business
c. Increases cost of production
d. Changes social outlooks
Answer: Increases cost of production

Q9. ____ is not an indicator of education level?
a. Years of schooling
b. Life expectancy
c. Teacher-pupil ratio
d. Enrollment rate
Answer: Life expectancy

Q10. Expenditure per student in _______ education is higher than that of elementary.
a. Secondary
b. Primary
c. Tertiary
d. None of these
Answer : Tertiary

Q11. _______ is the prime funding authority for university education.
a. LPG
b. UGL
c. UPSC
d. UGC
Answer: UGC

Q12. India has the potential to become a leading _______ economy.
a. Capital based
b. Youth based
c. Knowledge-based
d. All of these
Answer: Knowledge-based

Q13. Higher-income causes building of high level of ________ capital.
a. Physical
b. Human
c. Financial
d. None of these
Answer: Human

Q14. Human capital considers education and health as a means to increase _________
a. Publicity
b. Population
c. Private powers
d. Productivity
Answer: Productivity

Q15. Economic growth means ________ in real national income of a country
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. No change
d. Zero
Answer: Increase

Q16. ________ capital is completely mobile between countries.
a. Physical
b. Human
c. Financial
d. None of these
Answer: Physical

Q17. _______ is the reason for the rural-urban migration in India.
a. Over population
b. Unemployment
c. Higher infant mortality rate
d. Childhood marriages
Answer : Unemployment

Q18. Individuals invest in education with the objective of increasing their future ________
a. Friends
b. Income
c. Family
d. All of these
Answer: Income

Q19. Human capital formation is a _______ process.
a. Physical
b. Social
c. Chemical
d. Long
Answer: Social

Q20. Role of on-the-job training doesn’t include 
a. Eradicates inequality
b. Encourages innovation
c. Promotes modern methods
d. Enhances productivity
Answer: Enhances productivity

Q21. What was the average youth literacy rate in 2015?
a. 89.5 percent
b. 74 percent
c. 88 percent
d. 95.5 percent
Answer : 89.5 percent

Q22. In which year Right to Education Act was enacted?
a. 2008
b. 2009
c. 2010
d. 2012
Answer : 2009

Q23. What percent of GDP was invested in education in the year 1952?
a. 7.92 percent
b. 11.7 percent
c. 0.64 percent
d. 3.31 percent
Answer : 0.64 percent

Q24. What was the share of education in total government expenditure in 2014?
a. 7.92 percent
b. 15.7 percent
c. 0.64 percent
d. 3.31 percent
Answer: 15.7 percent

Q25. Which level of education takes a major share of total education expenditure in India?
a. Elementary
b. Secondary
c. Higher
d. Tertiary
Answer :Elementary

Q26. Which of the following institute comes under the health sector?
a. NCERT
b. UGC
c. AICTE
d. ICMR
Answer: ICMR

Q27. _____ five year plan recognizes the importance of human capital?
a. Seventh
b. Sixth
c. Tenth
d. First
Answer: Seventh

Q28. ______ capital is tangible and can be sold in the Market
a. Human
b. Physical
c. Service
d. None of these
Answer: Physical

Q29. _____ organisation enforces the rules and regulations regarding technical education
a. NCERT
b. AICTE
c. ICMR
d. UGC
Answer: AICTE

Q30. Institutions providing elementary education have increased up to ______ times
a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. Seven
Answer: Five

MCQ of Rural Development

Q1. Rural development means ____ for the social and economic growth of the rural areas.

  1. Policy
  2. Rule
  3. Action – plan
  4. None of these

Answer : Action – plan

Q2. The action plan under rural development is to focus on :

  1. More Improving the quality of life of Urbans
  2. Lingering and emerging challenges in rural areas
  3. Voting strategy in rural areas
  4. None of these

Answer: Lingering and emerging challenges in rural areas

Q3. The principal  lingering challenge under rural areas is 

  1. The challenge of organic farming
  2. Exploring options of sustainable livelihood
  3. Challenge of rural credit
  4. None of these

Answer : Challenge of rural credit

Q4. The principal emerging challenges include

  1. Challenge of rural marketing.
  2. The challenge of organic farming
  3. Exploring options of sustainable livelihood
  4. Both b and c

Answer: Both b and c

Q5. ____ is basically required for the purchase of inputs like seeds, fertilizer etc.

  1. Short – term credit
  2. Medium – term credit
  3. Long- term credit
  4. None of these

Answer: Short – term credit

Q6. _____ loans are raised generally for a period ranging between 6 to 12 months.

  1. Short – term credit
  2. Medium – term credit
  3. Long- term credit
  4. None of these

Answer: Short – term credit

Q7. ____ is required for the purchase of machinery, digging wells.

  1. Short – term credit
  2. Medium – term credit
  3. Long- term credit
  4. None of these

Answer:  Medium – term credit

Q8. _____ loans are raised generally for a period ranging between 12 months to 5 years.

  1. Short – term credit
  2. Medium – term credit
  3. Long- term credit
  4. None of these

Answer: Medium – term credit

Q9. Long – term credit is required for :

  1. Construction fences
  2. Purchase of insecticides
  3. Purchase of additional land
  4. None of these

Answer: Purchase of additional land

Q10. Long- term credit loans ranges between :

  1. 6 to 12 months
  2. 2 to 5 years
  3. 12 months to 5 years
  4. 5 to 20 years

Answer: 5 to 20 years

Q11. The credit requirement of the farmers may also be classified into

  1. Good and bad
  2. Social and non-social
  3. Productive and unproductive
  4. Legal and illegal

Answer : Productive and unproductive

Q12. The important sources of non – institutional rural credit in India include :

  1. Government
  2. The regional rural banks
  3. Moneylenders
  4. Commercial banks

Answer: Moneylenders

Q13. The important sources of institutional rural credit in india include 

  1. Landlords
  2. Commercial banks
  3. Village traders
  4. Moneylenders

Answer: Commercial banks

Q14. _____ provide guidance in diverse agricultural operations with a view to raising crop productivity.

  1. RRBs
  2. NABARD
  3. State bank of India
  4. Cooperative credit societies

Answer : Cooperative Credit Societies

Q15. The state bank of india was set up in ____ with a focus on rural credit.

  1. 1947
  2. 1950
  3. 1955
  4. 1959

Answer: 1955

Q16. ____ were set – up to promote credit supplies, particularly in the remote rural areas and backward districts

  1. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
  2. NABARD
  3. State bank of india
  4. Cooperative credit societies

Answer: Regional Rural Banks (RRB)

Q17. _____ structure of rural banking is called multi-agency system.

  1. Organisational
  2. Non – Institutional
  3. Institutional
  4. None of these

Answer: Institutional

Q18. What is the full form of NABARD?

  1. National Bank for Artificial and Rural Development
  2. National Blog for Agricultural and Real Development
  3. National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development
  4. Nearest bank for Agricultural and Rural Development

Answer: National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development

Q19. Which of the following is main function of NABARD?

  1. To serve as an apex funding agency for the institutions providing credit in rural areas
  2. To provide credit to the youths in urban areas
  3. To undertake monitoring and evaluation of projects refinanced by it
  4. Both a and c

Answer: Both a and c

Q20.  SHGs stands for 

  1. Self Honor Groups
  2. Self Help Groups
  3. Secondary Help Groups
  4. Stand Helping Groups

Answer: Self Help Groups

Q21. ____ promote thrift among rural households

  1. KCC scheme
  2. NABARD
  3. SHGs
  4. Cooperative credit societies

Answer: SHGs

Q22. KCC scheme stands for :

  1. Kisan Cash Card
  2. Kisan Committee Card
  3. Kisan Credit Card
  4. None of these

Answer: Kisan Credit Card

Q23. ____  aims at adequate and timely support to the farmers for their short- term credit needs

  1. KCC scheme
  2. NABARD
  3. SHGs
  4. Cooperative credit societies

Answer: KCC scheme

Q24. ____ refers to a situation when the farmers are compelled to sell their produce immediately after the harvest, no matter how low the market price is.

  1. Open sale
  2. Cash sale
  3. Distress sale
  4. Credit sale

Answer: Distress sale

Q25. ____ is an important step initiated by the government to improve agricultural marketing system.

  1. KCC scheme
  2. NABARD
  3. SHGs
  4. MSP policy

Answer: MSP Policy

Q26. ____ refers to the re – allocation of some of farm’s productive resources into new activities or crops reduces market risk.

  1. Agricultural activities
  2. Agricultural diversification
  3. Animal husbandry
  4. Horticulture

Answer: Agricultural Diversification

Q27. Operating flood is a system of ____ cooperative

  1. Food
  2. Milk
  3. Agricultural product
  4. None of these

Answer : Milk

Q28. Operation flood system was launched in the year ____

  1. 1956
  2. 1966
  3. 1976
  4. 1986

Answer: 1966

Q29. Milk cooperatives in India have their epicenter in the state of ____

  1. Haryana
  2. Gujarat
  3. Punjab
  4. Rajasthan

Answer: Gujarat

Q30. Animal husbandry is also called as :

  1. Horticulture
  2. Organic farming
  3. Livestock farming
  4. Multi cropping

Answer: Livestock farming

Q31. Important components of livestock in India are :

  1. Poultry
  2. Cattle
  3. Goats/ sheep
  4. All of these

Answer: All of these

Q32. Principal problems related to livestock sector are :

  1. Unhygienic environment
  2. Deficient veterinary care
  3. Deforestation
  4. All of these

Answer: Deficient Veterinary Care

Q33. Which one of the following is principal state in India where fisheries is an important source of livelihood in the rural areas?

  1. Haryana
  2. Kerala
  3. Punjab
  4. Madhya Pradesh

Answer: Kerala

Q34. Which country is the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables in the world?

  1. India
  2. America
  3. France
  4. Italy

Answer: India

Q35. ____ refers to a series of research, development and technology transfer initiatives that increased production of horticulture crops.

  1. Green revolution
  2. White revolution
  3. Golden revolution
  4. Blue revolution

Answer: Golden Revolution

Q36. What is the full form of TANWA?

  1. Tamil Nadu Women In Agriculture
  2. Tamil Nadu Woman In Agriculture
  3. Tamil Nadu Wealth In Agriculture
  4. Tamil Nadu Workers In America

Answer: Tamil Nadu Women In Agriculture

Q37. Which project was launched in Tamil Nadu with a view to training women in diverse techniques of farming.

  1. NABARD
  2. TANWA
  3. TANWI
  4. SHG

Answer: TANWA

Q38. ____ is a system of farming that relies upon the use of organic inputs for cultivation.

  1. Organic farming
  2. Inorganic farming
  3. Animal husbandry
  4. Horticulture

Answer: Organic farming

Q39. Which of the following is a notable advantage of organic farming, compared with conventional farming?

  1. Environment – friendly
  2. Sustains soil fertility
  3. Healthier and tastier food
  4. All of these

Answer: All of these

Q40. Which of the following farming erodes fertility of soil

  1. Organic
  2. Inorganic
  3. Conventional
  4. Livestock

Answer: Conventional

Q41. ____ has been accorded to the retail chains and supermarkets for selling organic food?

  1. Eco Status
  2. Sustainable Status
  3. Nutritional Status
  4. Green Status

Answer: Green Status

Q42. What percentage of the inland sources contribute to the total fish production in India

  1. 64%
  2. 33%
  3. 50%
  4. 74%

Answer: 64%

Q43. What is the name of the vegetable and fruit market in Andhra Pradesh?

  1. Apni Mandi
  2. Hadaspar Mandi
  3. Rythu Bazars
  4. Uzhavar Sandies

Answer : Rythu Bazars

Q44. Which among the following is a process that involves the assembling, storage, processing, transportation, packaging, grading, and distribution of different agricultural commodities across the country?

  1. Agricultural Management
  2. Agricultural Banking
  3. Agricultural Diversification
  4. Agricultural Marketing

Answer : Agricultural Marketing

Q45. What was the growth rate of agricultural output during 2007-12?

  1. 6% per annum
  2. 32% per annum
  3. 5% per annum
  4. 5% per annum

Answer : 32% Per Annum

MCQ of Poverty

Q1. What is Poverty?

  1. inability to fulfill the requirements for luxurious life
  2. inability to fulfill the requirements for children wishes
  3. inability to fulfill the heavy demands of individuals
  4. inability to fulfill the minimum requirements of life

Answer : Inability to fulfill the minimum requirements of life

Q2. The minimum requirements of a human include :

  1. Food and shelter
  2. Gold jewelry
  3. Salon
  4. Kids toys

Answer: Food and shelter

Q3. Two variants of poverty are 

  1. Relative poverty and Irrelative poverty
  2. Absolute poverty and inabsolute poverty
  3. Relative poverty and absolute poverty
  4. None of these

Answer : Relative poverty and absolute poverty

Q4. Relative poverty refers to :

  1. Poverty across different classes, regions Or countries
  2. Poverty in a north part of country
  3. Poverty in a particular slum area
  4. None of these

Answer : Poverty across different classes, regions Or countries

Q5.  Chronic poor refers to the :

  1. community little above poverty line
  2. people who fulfill minimum needs but can’t fulfill luxurious wishes
  3. people who don’t have aadhar cards
  4. people who never move above the poverty line

Answer: People who never move above the poverty line

Q6. Head count ratio refers to the :

  1. measurement of poverty in terms of the number of persons above poverty line
  2. measurement of poverty in terms of the number of persons below poverty line
  3. measurement of poverty in terms of the number of poor children attended the school
  4. None of these

Answer: Measurement of poverty in terms of the number of persons below poverty line

Q7. ____ poor include landless agricultural workers, managerial holders and tenants at will.

  1. Rural
  2. Urban
  3. Chronic
  4. Both a and b

Answer : Rural

Q8. ____ poor include migrants from the rural areas in search of employment

  1. Rural
  2. Urban
  3. Chronic
  4. Both a and b

Answer: Urban

Q9. What is the single most important reason of poverty in India?

  1. Rising illiteracy rate
  2. Rising population
  3. Rising infant mortality rate
  4. Rising unemployment rate

Answer: Rising population

Q10. Poverty with reference to underdevelopment of the Indian economy includes factors like ____

  1. Low level of national product
  2. Unequal distribution of income
  3. Lack of infrastructure
  4. Both a and c

Answer: Both a and c

Q11 . ____  provides assistance to elderly people.

  1. VAMBAY
  2. NSAP
  3. PMGY
  4. PMRY

Answer : NSAP

Q12. NFWP was launched in ____

  1. November 2004
  2. December 2003
  3. November 2002
  4. December 2005

Answer : November 2004

Q13. Which state had the highest poverty rate in India?

  1. Odisha
  2. Bihar
  3. Madhya Pradesh
  4. Haryana

Answer : Odisha

Q14. _____is an action adopted under the provision of minimum basic amenities to the people?

  1. Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana
  2. Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojna
  3. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojna
  4. National Rural Livelihood Mission

Answer: Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojna

Q15. In 2011-12, poverty line was defined worth ________ as consumption per person a month for rural areas and _______ for urban areas.

  1. ₹816 and ₹1,000
  2. ₹1,012 and ₹1,210
  3. ₹550 and ₹860
  4. ₹860 and ₹673

Answer: ₹816 and ₹1,000

Q16. _____regularly moves in and out of poverty.

  1. Chronically poor
  2. Churning poor
  3. Occasionally poor
  4. Transient poor

Answer : Churning poor

Q17. In which year was the task Force on Projections of Minimum Needs and Effective Consumption Demand formed?

  1. 1969
  2. 1979
  3. 1989
  4. 1999

Answer : 1979

Q18. Which of the following is the poverty determination measure?

  1. Head Count Ratio
  2. Sen Index
  3. Poverty Gap Index
  4. All of these

Answer : All of these

Q19. What was the percentage of the population below the poverty line in India in 2011-12?

  1. 1%
  2. 3%
  3. 22%
  4. 32%

Answer: 22%

Q20. More than _______ of the world’s poor live in India.

  1. two – third
  2. one-third
  3. one-fourth
  4. one-fifth

Answer : One-fifth

Q21. ____ initiates Rural Employment Generation Programme ( REGP)

  1. NSIC
  2. KVIC
  3. PMRY
  4. DCE

Answer: KVIC

Q22. Poverty line cut – off can be determined in terms of _____ or in terms of calories intake.

  1. Monthly per capital expenditure
  2. Monthly consumption
  3. Monthly physical activity
  4. None of these

Answer: Monthly per capital expenditure

Q23. Rural poors include

  1. Landless agricultural labourers
  2. Land owing agricultural labourers
  3. Land owing urban employees
  4. None of these

Answer: Landless agricultural labourers

Q24. From 1972-73 , both rural and urban poverty has shown a significant ____

  1. Growth
  2. Decline
  3. Increase
  4. None of these

Answer: Decline

Q25. In comparison to ____ , ____  has more population below poverty line

  1. Haryana, Punjab
  2. Punjab, Haryana
  3. Punjab, Sri Lanka
  4. None of these

Answer : Punjab, Haryana

Q26. _____ sets up the Poverty line norms for monetary value of minimum calories intake.

  1. Nehru committee
  2. Tendulkar committee
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of these

Answer : Tendulkar committee

Q27. In India, the concept of poverty was first discussed by ____

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Indira Gandhi
  3. Dadabhai Naoroji
  4. Amartya Sen

Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji

Q28. ____ people having income below the poverty line.

  1. Poor
  2. Rich
  3. Nourished
  4. None of these

Answer : Poor

Q29. MPCE stands for :

  1. Monthly Per Capital Expenditure
  2. Minimum Per Capital Expenditure
  3. Maximum Per Capital Expenditure
  4. None of these

Answer: Monthly Per Capital Expenditure

Q30. Which organization collects data on poverty in India?

  1. SGRY
  2. SJSRY
  3. NSSO
  4. MGNREGA

Answer: NSSO

MCQ of Money and Banking 

Q1. A thing which is commonly accepted as a medium of exchange is called 
a. Money
b. Investment
c. Deposits
d. None of these
Answer : Money

Q2. _____ is a system in which goods are exchanged for goods.
a. Monetary system of exchange
b. Barter system of exchange
c. Charter system of exchange
d. Barter system of exchange
Answer: Barter system of exchange

Q3. C-C economy stands for :
a. Cash for credit exchange economy
b. Cash for cash exchange economy
c. Commodity for commodity exchange economy
d. None of these
Answer: Commodity for commodity exchange economy

Q4. _____ implies that the two individuals are in possession of such goods which they are willing to exchange for the satisfaction of their wants.
a. Fiat money
b. Double coincidence of wants
c. Fiduciary money
d. Credit money
Answer: Double coincidence of wants

Q5. Introduction of money has separated the acts of ____ and ____
a. Sale and purchase
b. Purchase returns and sales returns
c. Cash and credit
d. Fiduciary money and credit money
Answer: Sale and purchase

Q6. Which of the following is a drawback of the barter system of exchange?
a. Absence of both parties
b. Lack of common unit of value
c. Double coincidence of wants
d. Both b and c
Answer: Both b and c

Q7. Fiat money refers to :
a. That money which is issued by order/ authority of the government
b. Money in terms of coins whose commodity value is equal to the money value as and when these are issued
c. That money which is accepted as a medium of exchange because of the trust between the payer and the payee
d. That money of which money value is more than commodity value
Answer: That money which is issued by order/ authority of the government

Q8. Fiduciary money refers to :
a. That money which is issued by order/ authority of the government
b. Money in terms of coins whose commodity value is equal to the money value as and when these are issued
c. That money which is accepted as a medium of exchange because of the trust between the payer and the payee
d. That money of which money value is more than commodity value
Answer: That money which is accepted as a medium of exchange because of the trust between the payer and the payee

Q9. Full bodied money refers to :
a. That money which is issued by order/ authority of the government
b. Money in terms of coins whose commodity value is equal to the money value as and when these are issued
c. That money which is accepted as a medium of exchange because of the trust between the payer and the payee
d. That money of which money value is more than commodity value
Answer: Money in terms of coins whose commodity value is equal to the money value as and when these are issued

Q10. ____ refers to that money wherein money value is more than commodity value
a. Fiat money
b. Fiduciary money
c. Full bodied money
d. Credit money
Answer: Credit money

Q11. Money is known as full-bodied money when 
a. Money value < commodity value
b. Money value > commodity value
c. Money value = commodity value
d. Money value = 0 = commodity value
Answer: Money value = commodity value

Q12. Money is known as credit money when 
a. Money value < commodity value
b. Money value > commodity value
c. Money value = commodity value
d. Money value = 0 = commodity value
Answer: Money value > commodity value

Q13. Money plays no role in a situation when there is no ____
a. Government
b. Cash policy
c. Exchange
d. Both a and b
Answer: Exchange

Q14. ____ refers to total stock of money held by the people of a country at a point of time.
a. Fiat money
b. Demand of money
c. Supply of money
d. Cash reserve
Answer: Supply of money

Q15. Supply of money doesn’t include stock of money held by the ________ of a country.
a. People
b. Politicians
c. Government
d. Foreign investors
Answer : Government

Q16. The stock of money held by the suppliers of money is ____ treated as a part of the supply of money in the country.
a. Always
b. Compulsory
c. Often
d. Never
Answer: Never

Q17. The government and the banking system of a country are the _____
a. Enemy of money
b. Producers of money
c. Owner of money
d. All of these
Answer: Producers of money

Q18. According to M1 measurement , money supply includes the :
M1 = ___ + ___ + ___
a. C + CD + DD
b. C + DD + OC
c. D + DD + OD
d. C + DD + OD
Answer: C + DD + OD

Q19. In M1 = C + DD + OD , C stands for :
a. Currency
b. Capital
c. Cash
d. Credit
Answer: Currency

Q20. In M1 = C + DD + OD , DD stands for:
a. Demand Draft
b. Demand Deposits
c. Draft Deposit
d. None of these
Answer: Demand Deposits

Q21. Term deposits are for ____ period of time.
a. Long
b. Specific
c. 12 years
d. Unspecified
Answer: Specific

Q22. Who supplies money ?
a. Opposition party
b. Commercial banks
c. RBI
d. Both b and c
Answer: Both b and c

Q23. Money credit by the commercial banks by way of demand deposits is called ____
a. Credit Money
b. Cash pay
c. Bank money
d. Bill payable
Answer: Bank money

Q24. The credit money includes :
a. Cheque and draft
b. Promissory note
c. Exchange note
d. All of these
Answer: All of these

Q25. The near money includes :
a. Bonds
b. Insurance policy
c. Securities
d. All of these
Answer : All of these

Q26. Which of the following is the feature of money?
a. General acceptability
b. Homogeneous unit
c. Liquid asset
d. All of these
Answer : All of these

Q27. In order to encourage investment in the economy, the Central Bank may ________
a. Reduce Cash Reserve Ratio
b. Increase Cash Reserve Ratio
c. Sell Government securities in the open market
d. Increase Bank Rate
Answer: Reduce Cash Reserve Ratio

Q28. Institution that accepts deposits for lending purpose is known as __________
a. Commercial Bank
b. Central Bank
c. Government
d. Public
Answer: Commercial Bank

Q29. Functions of a commercial bank include :
a. Accepting deposits
b. Credit creation
c. Agency function
d. All of these
Answer: All of these

Q30. Which of the following is a narrow measure of the money supply?
a. M2
b. M3
c. M1
d. M4
Answer: M1

Q31. When was the minimum reserve system started in India?
a. 1947
b. 1948
c. 1951
d. 1957
Answer : 1957

Q32. High Powered Money includes:
a. C + DD + OD
b. C + R + OD
c. C + R + TD
d. C + DD + TD
Answer: C + R + OD

Q33. Indian Monetary System is based on ________
a. Paper Standard
b. Metallic Standard
c. Gold Standard
d. Credit Money Standard
Answer: Paper Standard

Q34. _____ is the apex bank of India
a. RBI
b. SBI
c. SBP
d. PNB
Answer: RBI

We would love your reading of MCQs for CUET 2022 of other subjects which are as follow.

# MCQ of Economics CUET

# MCQ of Economics CUET 2022

# MCQ of Economics CUET 2023

# MCQ of Economics CUET With Answers

# MCQ of Economics CUET Preparation

# MCQ of Economics CUET Preparation 2022

 

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