July 25, 2021

MCQ Of Reproductive Health | Chapter 4 | Class 12 | Biology |

By  MCQ Biology Class 12  2 Comments
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MCQ Of Reproductive Health, Chapter 4, Biology, Class 12

 

Question 1: Reproductive health is the well – being of ?

  1. Physical aspects
  2. Emotional and behavioral aspects
  3. Social aspects
  4. All of the above

Answer : D (All of the above)

Question 2: Amniocentesis is the detection of?

  1. Chromosomal pattern by taking amniotic fluid
  2. Chorionic fluid from developing embryo
  3. Chromosomal pattern after childbirth
  4. Chromosomal pattern before fertilization

Answer : A (Chromosomal pattern by taking amniotic fluid)

Question 3: In context of amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?

  1. It is used for prenatal sex determination
  2. It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
  3. It can be used for detection of cleft palate
  4. It is usually done when a woman in between 14 – 16 weeks pregnant

Answer : C (It can be used for detection of cleft palate)

Question 4: Identify the incorrect statement from those given below?

  1. RCH programmes created awareness among people about various reproduction related aspects
  2. Sexually transmitted diseases can be avoided by educating people with proper information about reproduction, adolescence and related changes, etc.
  3. Ultrasounds have been banned as it was used for foetal sex determination based on chromosomal studies
  4. None of the above

Answer : C (Ultrasounds have been banned as it was used for foetal sex determination based on chromosomal studies)

Question 5: Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?

  1. Klinefelter’s syndrome
  2. Sex of the foetus
  3. Down’s syndrome
  4. Jaundice

Answer : D (Jaundice)

Question 6: Indicators of the improved reproductive health of the society are?

  1. Better detection and cure of STDs
  2. Improved medical facilities
  3. Decreased maternal and infant mortality rates
  4. All of the above

Answer : D (All of the above)

Question 7: Population explosion is?

  1. Increased frequency of diseases in population
  2. Rapid increase in population number
  3. Rapid decrease in population number
  4. None of the above

Answer : B (Rapid increase in population number)

Question 8: Select the correct option which includes the steps implemented by government to control the ever increasing population?

  1. Increasing the price of contraceptives so they are available to all
  2. Advertising the benefits of small family, slogans like, “hum do hamare do’, etc
  3. Raising the marriageable age, females 18 years, males 21 years
  4. Both B and C

Answer : D (Both B and C)

Question 9: An ideal contraceptive should be?

  1. User friendly
  2. Reversible
  3. Both A and B
  4. Increase sexual drive

Answer : C (Both A and B)

Question 10: Natural methods of contraception are the natural ways to?

  1. Increase spermicidal activity
  2. Prevent fertilisation
  3. Decrease mortality
  4. Increase mortality

Answer : B (Prevent fertilisation)

Question 11: Days of periodic abstinence are?

  1. 10 – 11 days of menstrual phase
  2. 10 – 17 days of menstrual phase
  3. 17 – 20 days of menstrual phase
  4. 20 – 28 days of menstrual phase

Answer : B (10 – 17 days of menstrual phase)

You may also read MCQ of Reproduction in Organisms, MCQ of Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, MCQ of Human Reproduction, MCQ Of Principles of Inheritance and Variation, MCQ of Molecular Basis of Inheritance for better understanding of the chapters.

Question 12: Periodic abstinence is avoiding sex during?

  1. Follicular phase
  2. Ovulatory phase
  3. Menstrual phase
  4. None of the above

Answer : B (Ovulatory phase)

Question 13: Coitus interruptus is the withdrawl method of natural contraception involving

  1. Withdrawl of penis before ejaculation
  2. Withdrawl of penis after ejaculation
  3. Sex during ovulation
  4. No sex during ovulation

Answer : A (Withdrawl of penis before ejaculation)

Question 14: Lactational amenorrhea is

  1. Absence of menses in adult age
  2. Absence of menses in elderly age
  3. Absence of menses during lactation
  4. No menses during pregnancy

Answer : C (Absence of menses during lactation)

 Question 15: Condoms or femidoms are made up of thin rubber/latex sheath which is used to cover?

  1. Penis in male
  2. Cervix in female
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of these

Answer : C (Both A and B)

Question 16: Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are?

  1. Non-usable
  2. For female use only
  3. For male use only
  4. None of these

Answer : B (For female use only)

Question 17: Spermicidal creams are used in addition to condoms, diaphragms, cervical cap and vaults for?

  1. Lubrication
  2. Killing germs
  3. Increasing contraceptive effectiveness
  4. None of the above

Answer : C (Increasing contraceptive effectiveness)

Question 18: IUDs stands for?

  1. Inter Uterine Devices
  2. Intra Uterine Devices
  3. Inter Uterine Development
  4. Intra Uterine Development

Answer : B (Intra Uterine Devices)

Question 19: Which IUD increases the phagocytosis of the sperms within the uterus?

  1. Non-medicated IUD
  2. Copper releasing IUD
  3. Both A and B
  4. Hormone releasing IUD

Answer : C (Both A and B)

Question 20: Example of the non-medicated IUD is?

  1. Cu – T
  2. Cu – 7
  3. Multiload – 375
  4. Lippes loop

Answer : D (Lippes loop)

Question 21: Hormone releasing IUDs among the following are?

  1. Copper – T
  2. LNG – 20
  3. Saheli
  4. Diaphragm

Answer : B (LNG – 20)

Question 22: Copper releasing IUDs are used for suppressing the?

  1. Activity of ova
  2. Activity of the uterus
  3. Motility of the sperms
  4. Motility of ova

Answer : C (Motility of the sperms)

Question 23: Example of copper releasing IUD are?

  1. Cu – T
  2. C4 – 7
  3. Multiload – 375
  4. All of these

Answer : D (All of these)

Question 24: In IUD contraception, sperm motility decreases due to?

  1. Cu ions
  2. Fe ions
  3. Zn ions
  4. Se ions

Answer : A (Cu ions)

Question 25:  …A… makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to …B… ?

  1. A – Hormonal releasing IUD; B – spermatogonia
  2. A – Hormonal releasing IUD; B – sperms
  3. A – Sperms, B hormonal releasing IUD
  4. A – Sperms, B – ova

Answer : B (A – Hormonal releasing IUD; B – sperms)

Question 26: Oral contraceptives have hormonal preparation of ?

  1. Progesterone
  2. Estrogen
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of these

Answer : C (Both A and B)

Question 27: Oral contraceptives inhibits …A… and implantation as well as quality of cervical …B… to prevent the entry of sperms?

  1. A – ovulation; B – mucus
  2. A – oogenesis; B – structure
  3. A – oogenesis; B – nucleus
  4. A – spermatogenesis; B – mucus

Answer : A (A – ovulation; B – mucus)

Question 28: Pills have to be taken daily for period of …A… days. Starting preferably within first five days of menstrual cycle. After a gap of …B… days, it has to be repeated in the same pattern?

  1. A – 27; B – 1
  2. A – 21; B – 7
  3. A – 22; B – 5
  4. A – 24; B – 4

Answer : B (A – 21; B – 7)

Question 29: Administration of progesterone, progesterone – estrogen combination and IUDs are effective with in?

  1. 72 hours
  2. 48 hours
  3. 24 hours
  4. 96 hours

Answer : A (72 hours)

Question 30: Injections and implants (the progesterone or progesterone – estrogen combination) are used by the females usually under the?

  1. Skin of the inner arm above elbow
  2. Vagina
  3. Upper skin of stomach
  4. Cervix

Answer : A (Skin of the inner arm above elbow)

Question 31: What is the difference in oral contraceptives and hormonal implants?

  1. They differ in their sites of implantation
  2. They differ in their duration of action
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of the above

Answer : C ( Both A and B )

Question 32: Tubectomy is a method of sterilisation in which?

  1. Small part of the Fallopian tube is removed or tied up
  2. Ovaries are removed surgically
  3. Small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up
  4. Uterus is removed surgically

Answer : A (Small part of the Fallopian tube is removed or tied up)

Question 33: Name the part cut and tied in male sterilisation. Also, name the procedure?

  1. Vas deferens; Tubectory
  2. Vas deferens; Vasectomy
  3. Vasa efferentia; Tubectomy
  4. Vasa efferentia; Vasectomy

Answer : B (Vas deferens; Vasectomy)

Question 34: Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?

  1. Intra uterine devices – Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms
  2. Hormonal contraceptives – Prevent retard entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilisation
  3. Vasectomy – Prevents spermatogenesis
  4. Barrier methods – Prevent fertilisation

Answer : C (Vasectomy – Prevents spermatogenesis)

Question 35: Which of the following birth control measure considered as the safest?

  1. The rhythm method
  2. Use of physical barriers
  3. Termination of unwanted pregnancy
  4. Sterilisation techniques

Answer : D (Sterilisation techniques)

Question 36: Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?

  1. No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
  2. No sperm occurs in epididymis
  3. Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
  4. Irreversible sterility

Answer : B (No sperm occurs in epididymis)

Question 37: MTP stands for?

  1. Medical Termination of Pregnancy
  2. Mental Trauma Phase
  3. Menstrual Pain
  4. Menstrual Temporary Pain is safe

Answer : A (Medical Termination of Pregnancy)

Question 38: During which phase of the pregnancy MTP

  1. Ist trimester
  2. 2nd trimester
  3. 3rd trimester
  4. 4th trimester

Answer : A (Ist trimester)

Question 39: MTP is of much risk in which phase of the pregnancy?

  1. 2nd trimester
  2. 1st trimester
  3. 1st week
  4. 2nd week

Answer : A ( 2nd trimester)

Question 40: MTP helps to overcome pregnancy that result due to?

  1. Unwanted
  2. Unsafe sex
  3. Failure of contracepting
  4. All of these

Answer : D (All of these)

Question 41: The other name for STDs are?

  1. Venereal diseases
  2. Reproductive tract infections
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of the above

Answer : C (Both A and B)

Question 42: Hepatitis-B and HIV spreads through?

  1. Sharing needles
  2. Transfusion of blood
  3. Infected mother to child
  4. All of the above

Answer : D (All of the above)

Question 43: Which of the following STDs are curable?

  1. Chlamydia
  2. Syphilis
  3. AIDS
  4. Both A and B

Answer : D ( Both A and B)

Question 44: STDs caused by bacteria include?

  1. Syphilis
  2. Gonorrhoea
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of these

Answer : C ( Both A and B )

Question 45: Incidents of STD are very high among persons, in the age group of?

  1. 15 – 35 years
  2. 15 – 30 years
  3. 15 – 24 years
  4. 15 – 45 years

Answer : C (15 – 24 years)

Question 46: One of the legal methods of birth control is?

  1. Abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
  2. By abstaining from coitus from day 10 – 17 of the menstrual cycle
  3. By having coitus at the time of day break
  4. By a premature ejaculation during coitus

Answer : B ( By abstaining from coitus from day 10 – 17 of the menstrual cycle)

Question 47: Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as?

  1. Pregnancies with genetic abnormality
  2. Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus
  3. Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus
  4. Pregnancies terminated due to the hormonal imbalance

Answer : B ( Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus )

Question 48: Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of?

  1. Ovum into the Fallopian tube
  2. Zygote into the Fallopian tube
  3. Zygote into the uterus
  4. Embryo with 16 balastomeres into the Fallopian tube

Answer : B (Zygote into the Fallopian tube)

Question 49: IVF in which the early zygote with up to 8 blastomeres is transferred to the Fallopian tube is called?

  1. ZIFT
  2. GIFT
  3. ICSI
  4. IUI

Answer : A (ZIFT)

Question 50: IVF in which zygote with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into female body it is called

  1. IUT
  2. GIFT
  3. ZIFT
  4. ICSI

Answer : A (IUT)

Question 51: The test – tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques?

  1. Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
  2. Intra Uterine Insemination (IUI)
  3. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
  4. Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT)

Answer : Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT)

Question 52: IUT stands for

  1. Inter uterine transfer
  2. Intra Uterine transfer
  3. In – uterus transfer
  4. None of these

Answer : B (Intra Uterine transfer)

Question 53: False statement about ZIFT is

  1. Zygote in the fallopian transfer
  2. Type of IVF
  3. Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres are used
  4. Zygote or embryo with up to 8 blastomeres are used

Answer : C (Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres are used)

Question 54: Difference between ZIFT and IUT lies in the

  1. Methodology
  2. Nature of the sperms
  3. Nature of the cells
  4. Number of the cells

Answer : D (Number of the cells)

Question 55: Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilization is transferred into

  1. Uterus
  2. Fallopian tube
  3. Fimbriae
  4. Cervix

Answer : A (Uterus)

Question 56: What is false for GIFT ?

  1. It is Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
  2. Ovum is transferred into the oviduct
  3. Zygote is transferred into Fallopian tube
  4. Used when the receptive is sterile

Answer : C (Zygote is transferred into Fallopian tube)

Question 57: A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The fullform of this technique is

  1. Gamete Inseminated Fallopian Transfer
  2. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
  3. Gamete Internal Fertilisation and transfer
  4. Germ Cell Internal Fallopian Transfer

Answer : B (Gamete intra fallopian transfer)

Question 58: ICSI stands for

  1. In Cytoplasmic Sperm Insemination
  2. Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection
  3. Inter Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection
  4. In Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection

Answer : B ( Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection )

Question 59: Which of the following method is used when male partner is unable to inseminate into the female partner due to the low sperm count?

  1. AI
  2. IUI
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of the above

Answer : C (Both A and B)

Question 60: IUI stands for

  1. Intra Uterine Insemination
  2. Inter Uterine Insemination
  3. In Uterine Insemination
  4. Inner Uterine Insemination

Answer : A (Intra uterine insemination)

Question 61: Increased IMR and decreased MMR population will?

  1. Cause rapid increase in growth rate
  2. Result in decline in growth rate
  3. Not cause significant change in growth rate
  4. Result in an explosive population

Answer : C (Not cause significant change in growth rate)

Question 62: Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons?

  1. These are effective barriers for insemination
  2. They do not interfere with coital act
  3. These help in reducing the risk of STDs
  4. All of the above

Answer : D (All of the above)

Question 63: Which statement is true about diaphragm?

  1. They are introduced into the uterus
  2. They are placed to cover the cervical region
  3. They act as chemical barriers for sperm entry
  4. They act as spermicidal agents

Answer : B (They are placed to cover the cervical region)

Question 64: Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within 72 hrs of?

  1. Coitus
  2. Ovulation
  3. Menstruation
  4. Implantation

Answer : A (Coitus)

Question 65: The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is

  1. Ovariectomy
  2. Hysterectomy
  3. Vasectomy
  4. Castration

Answer : C ( Vasectomy )

Question 66: From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs?

  1. Syphilis
  2. AIDS
  3. Gonorrhoea
  4. Genital warts

Answer : B (AIDS)

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2 Comments
  1. Tamanna

    The best

    Reply
  2. Tamanna

    It helps me a lot
    Thank u so much

    Reply

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