MCQ Of Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants | Chapter 2 |Class 12 |

 MCQ of Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, Chapter 2, Class 12 Biology

 

Question 1: Identify A to G in following figure and answer accordingly.

  1.  A – Ovary , B – Filament , C – sepal , D – Petal , E – Style , F – Stigma , G – Anther
  2.  A – Sepal , B – Ovary , C – Petal , D – Filament , E – Anther , F – Stigma , G – Style
  3. A – Ovary , B – Sepal , C – Filament , D – Petal , E – Anther , F – Stigma , G – Style
  4. A – Petal , B – Anther , C – Stigma , D – Style , E – Filament , F – Sepal , G – Ovary

Answer : C (A – Ovary , B – Sepal , C – Filament , D – Petal , E – Anther , F – Stigma , G – Style)

 Question 2: The Terminal structure of stamen is called

  1.  Pollen
  2.  Filament
  3.  Anther
  4.  All of these

Answer : C (Anther)

Question 3: Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces

  1.  Two sperms and a vegetative cell
  2.  Single sperm and a vegetative cell
  3.  Single sperm and two vegetative cell
  4.  Three sperms

Answer : A (Two sperms and a vegetative cell)

Question 4: The lengthwise running groove on and anther which separate theca is called

  1.  Rupture line
  2.  Line of dehiscence
  3.  Suture of Anther
  4.  None of these

Answer : B (Line of dehiscence)

Question 5: Number of microsporangia in angiosperm anther is

  1.  1
  2.  2
  3.  3
  4.  4

Answer : D (4)

Question 6: Microsporangium develops into

  1.  Pollens
  2.  Microgamates
  3.  Megagamates
  4.  Pollen sac

Answer : D (Pollen sac)

Question 7: The innermost layer of microsporangium is

  1.  Tapetum
  2.  Endothecium
  3.  Middle layer
  4.  Epidermis

Answer : A (Tapetum)

Question 8: Centre of each microsporangium is occupied by

  1.  Sporogenous tissue
  2.  Tapetum
  3.  Central tissue
  4.  Microspore mother cell

Answer : A (Sporogenous tissue)

Question 9: Which of the following perform microsporogenesis?

  1.  Microspore mother cell
  2.  Pollen mother cell
  3.  Both A and B
  4.  None of the above

Answer : C (Both A and B)

Question 10: Microspore tetrad (pollen grains)is a result of

  1.  Mitotic cell division
  2.  Meiotic cell division
  3.  Both A and B
  4.  None of these

Answer : B (Meiotic cell division)

 Question 11: The above diagram is enlarged view of one microsporangium of a mature anther identify A , B , C –

  1. A – Middle layer , B – Endothecium , C – Tapetum
  2. A – Endothecium , B – Tapetum , C – Middle layer
  3. A – Endothecium , B – Middle layer , C – Tapetum
  4. A – Tapetum , B – Middle layer , C – Endothecium

Answer : C (A – Endothecium , B – Middle layer , C – Tapetum)

You may also read MCQ of Reproduction in OrganismsMCQ of Human Reproduction, MCQ of Reproductive Health, MCQ Of Principles of Inheritance and Variation, MCQ of Molecular Basis of Inheritance for better understanding of the chapters.

 Question 12: The proximal part of filaments of stamen is attached to

  1.  Thalamus or the petal
  2.  Sepals or thalamus
  3.  Pedicle aur petiole
  4.  Ovary or Ovule

Answer : A (Thalamus or the petal)

Question 13: Pollens have two prominant walls which are A and B here A and B refers to

  1. A – Intine                         B – Protein coat
  2. A – Exine                          B – Intine
  3. A – Sporopollenin           B – Intine
  4. A – Sporopollenin           B – Exine

Answer : B (A – Exine          B – Intine)

 Question 14: The sporopollenin is known degradable because

  1.  It can withstand strong acids
  2.  It is resistant at very high temperature
  3.  No enzyme degrade it
  4.  All of the above

Answer : D (All of the above)

Question 15: Intine is made up of

  1.  Cellulose
  2.  Pectin
  3.  Both A and B
  4.  Protein

Answer : C (Both A and B)

Question 16: Which cell is bigger and have abundant food reserve material during microsporogenesis?

  1.  Generative cell
  2.  Vegetative cell
  3.  Vacuole
  4.  Spore mother cell

Answer: B (Vegetative cell)

Question 17: 60% of the angiosperms shed their pollens at the

  1.  2 – celled stage
  2.  3 – celled stage
  3.  4 – celled stage
  4.  1- celled stage

Answer: A (2 – celled stage)

Question 18: Function of filiform apparatus is to

  1.  Recognise the suitable Pollen at stigma
  2.  Stimulate division of generative cell
  3.  Produce nectar
  4.  Guide the entry of pollen tube

Answer : D (Guide the entry of pollen tube)

Question 19: Pollens are stored at which temperature

  1.  -196°C
  2.  196°C
  3.  10°C
  4.  0°C
Answer : A (-196 º C)

Question 20: The stalk which joins ovule and placenta is called

  1.  Funicle
  2.  Helium
  3.  Chalaza
  4.  Micropyle

Answer : A (Funicle)

 Question 21: Embryo sac is also called

  1.  Female gamete
  2.  Synergids
  3.  Female gametophyte
  4.  Egg of angiosperm

Answer : C (Female gametophyte)

Question 22: Megasporogenesis is

  1.  Formation of root
  2.  Formation of seeds
  3.  Formation of megaspore
  4.  Both B and C

Answer : C (Formation of megaspore)

Question 23: Each cell of sporogenous tissue in anther is

  1.  Microspore
  2.  Pollen
  3.  Potential Pollen or microspore mother cell
  4.  Megaspore mother cell

Answer : C (Potential pollen or microspore mother cell)

Question 24: As the anther mature and dehydrate the ____ separate dissociate from each other and develop into ______

  1.  Megaspore , embryo sac
  2.  Microspore , pollen grains
  3.  Pollen grain , megaspore
  4.  Megaspore , microspore

Answer : B (Microspore , pollen grains)

Question 25: Identify A to F in the diagram.

  1. A – Egg , B – Filiform apparatus , C – Synergid , D – Antipodal cell , E – Polar nuclei , F – Central cell
  2. A – Egg , B – Synergid , C – Filiform apparatus , D – Antipodal cell , E – Central cell , F – Polar nuclei
  3. A – Central cell , B – Synergid , C – Synergid , D – Antipodal cell , E – Filiform apparatus , F – Polar nuclei
  4. A – Filiform apparatus , B – Synergid , C – Egg , D – Central cell , E – Polar nuclei , F – Antipodal cell

Answer : D (A – Filiform apparatus , B – Synergid , C – Egg , D – Central cell , E – Polar nuclei , F – Antipodal cell)

Question 26: Two nuclei with one cell are found in

  1.  Antipodal cell
  2.  Chalazal cell
  3.  Central cell
  4.  Synergid cell

Answer : C (Central cell)

Question 27: Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to stigma of another flower of different plant is called

  1.  Geitonogamy
  2.  Xenogamy
  3.  Chasmogamy
  4.  Cleistogamy

Answer : B (Xenogamy)

Question 28: In Chasmogamy , pollination takes place in

  1.  Open flower
  2.  Close flower
  3.  Large flower
  4.  Geitonogamy flower

Answer : A (Open flower)

Question 29: The most common abiotic pollinating agency in flowering plant is

  1.  Water
  2.  Wind
  3.  Both A and B
  4.  None of these

Answer : B (Wind)

Question 30: Advantage of cleistogamy is

  1.  Higher genetic variability
  2.  More vigorous of offspring
  3.  No dependence on pollinators
  4.  Vivipary

Answer : C (No dependence on pollinators)

Question 31: Characteristics of wind pollinated pollens is , they are

  1.  Non – sticky
  2.  Light
  3.  Large number in production
  4.  All of the above

Answer : D (All of the above)

Question 32: Continued self pollination results in

  1.  Inbreeding depression
  2.  Outbreeding depression
  3.  Hybrid vigour
  4.  Better result in offsprings

Answer : A (Inbreeding depression)

Question 33: Unisexual or dioecious condition prevents

  1.  Autogamy
  2.  Geitonogamy
  3.  Self fertilization
  4.  All of these

Answer : D (All of these)

Question 34: Fertilization involving carrying of male gamate by pollen tube is 

  1. Porogamy
  2. Siphonogamy
  3. Chalazagamy
  4. Synganogamy

Answer : B (Siphonogamy)

Question 35: Geitonogamy involves

  1.  Fertilization of a flower by the Pollen from another flower of the same plant
  2.  Fertilization of a flower by the Pollen from the same flower
  3.  Fertilization of a flower by the Pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population
  4.  Fertilization of a flower by the Pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant population

Answer : A (Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant)

Question 36: Polar nuclei are located in

  1. Pollen tube
  2. Embryo sac
  3. Ovule
  4. Thalamus

Answer : B (Embryo sac)

Question 37: Generally Pollen tube enters through

  1.  Micropylar region
  2.  Antipodal region
  3.  Chalazal end
  4.  Nuclear region

Answer : A (Micropylar region)

Question 38: Number of chromosomes in gamate mother cell is 24, then find out the chromosome number of male and female gamete.

  1.  18 , 18
  2.  17 , 18
  3.  20 , 20
  4.  12 , 12

Answer : D (12 , 12)

Question 39: PEC (primary endosperm cell) is formed

  1.  After triple fusion
  2.  Before triple fusion
  3.  At the time of syngamy
  4.  Always persisted

Answer : A (After triple fusion)

Question 40: Gametogenesis in haploid plant involves

  1. Binary fission 
  2. Meiosis
  3. Mitosis
  4. Amitosis

Answer : C (Mitosis)

Question 41: In angiosperm , Pollen tube liberate their male gamates into the

  1.  Central cell
  2.  Antipodal cell
  3.  Egg cell
  4.  Synergids

Answer : D (Synergids)

Question 42: Out of the following choose the post fertilization event.

  1.  Endospermogenesis
  2.  Embryogenesis
  3.  Both A and B
  4.  Organogenesis

Answer : C (Both A and B )

Question 43: Which of the following sequence of development of embryo sac is correct?

  1.  Nucellus → megaspore→ embryo sac
  2.  Nucellus → megagametophyte → megaspore → embryo sac
  3.  Nucellus → megasporangium → megaspore → embryo sac
  4.  Nucellus → megaspore mother cell → megaspore → embryo sac

Answer : D (Nucellus→ megaspore mother cell → megaspore → embryo sac) 

Question 44: Perisperm is

  1. Outer part of embryo sac
  2. Degenerate synergid
  3. Degenerate secondary nucleus
  4. Remains of nucellus

Answer : D (Remains of nucellus)

Question 45: Function of suspensor in embryo is

  1. Absorption of nourishment
  2. Push the embryo into nuritive endosperm region
  3. Formation of secondary embryo
  4. All of the above

Answer : B (Push the embryo into nutritive endosperm region)

 Question 46: An ovule has generally how many embryo sac ?

  1.  1
  2.  3
  3.  4
  4.  8

Answer : A (1)

Question 47: The female gametophyte of dicot or monosporic embryo sac is –

  1.  7 celled 7 nucleated
  2.  8 celled 7 nucleus
  3.  7 celled 8 nucleate
  4.  8 celled and 7 nucleate

Answer : C (7 – celled and 8 – nucleate)

Question 48: Autogamy is

  1.  Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of the same flower
  2.  Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of the another flower
  3.  Pollination between two flower
  4.  Maturation of anther and stigma at different times

Answer : A (Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of the same flower)

Question 49: Cleistogamous flower produces assured seed set even in the absence of pollinator. why?

  1.  Because they have fragnance
  2.  Because they remain open
  3.  Because they are autogamous
  4.  Because they are colourful

Answer : C (Because they are autogamous)

Question 50: This of the following devices is not used by plants to prevent autogamy –

  1.  Self incompatibility
  2.  Production of unisexual flower
  3.  Heterostyly
  4.  Production of cleistogamous flowers

Answer : D (Production of cleistogamous flowers)

Question 51: Which is not diploid?

  1.  Nucellus
  2.  Integuments
  3.  Endosperm
  4.  Embryo

Answer : C (Endosperm)

Question 52: In dicot embryo the radical is formed by

  1.  Epibasal tier of embryo
  2.  Hypobasal tier of embryo
  3.  Hypophysis of suspensor
  4.  Terminal cell of suspensor

Answer : C (Hypophysis of suspensor)

Question 53: Identify the A to E in following diagram of typical dicot embryo.

  1. A – Cotyledons , B – Hypocotyle , C – Plumule , D – Root , E – Radicle
  2. A – Radicle , B – Root cap , C – Plumule , D – Hypocotyle , E – Cotyledons
  3. A – Hypocotyle , B – Cotyledons , C – Plumule , D – Radicle , E – Root cap 
  4. A – Plumule , B – Cotyledons , C – Hypocotyle , D – Radicle , E – Root cap

Answer : D (A – Plumule , B – Cotyledons , C – Hypocotyle , D – Radicle , E – Root cap)

Question 54: Development of embryo from a cell of embryo sac other than egg is an example of

  1.  Apospory
  2.  Apogamy
  3.  Adventitive embryogeny
  4.  Parthenogenesis

Answer : C ( Adventitive embryogeny)

Question 55: Maturation of stigma and another at different time in the same flower is

  1.  Heterostyle
  2.  Dichogamy
  3.  Dicliny
  4.  Herkogamy

Answer : B (Dichogamy)

Question 56: Movement of pollen tube towards embryo sac is

  1.  Thermotactic
  2.  Phototactic
  3.  Chemotactic
  4.  Thigmotatic

Answer : C (Chemotactic)

Question 57: False fruit is a fruit in which

  1.  Only ovary take part in fruit development
  2.  Only embryo take part in fruit development
  3.  Only chalazal cells take part in fruit development
  4.  Ovary and other floral part included in fruit

Answer : D (Ovary and other floral part included in fruit)

Question 58: Type of cell division takes place in apomixis is

  1.  Reductional
  2.  Meiosis
  3.  Both A and B
  4.  Mitosis

Answer : D (Mitosis)

Question 59: Occurrence of more than one embryo is called

  1.  Polyembryony
  2.  Embryony
  3.  Parthenogenesis
  4.  Fertilization

Answer : A (Polyembryony)

Question 60: Milky water of green coconut is

  1.  Liquid chalaza
  2.  Liquid Nucleus
  3.  Liquid female gametophores
  4.  Liquid endosperm

Answer : D (Liquid endosperm)

Question 61: Germ pore is the area where exine is

  1. Thick
  2.  Thick and uniform
  3.  Uniform
  4.  Absent

Answer : D (Absent)

Question 62: Pollen kit is formed from

  1.  Endothecium
  2.  Middle layer
  3.  Microspore mother cell
  4.  Tapetum

Answer : D (Tapetum)

Question 63: Remnants of nucellus present in seed are called

  1.  Pericarp
  2.  Periderm
  3.  Endosperm
  4.  Perisperm

Answer : D (Perisperm)

Question 64: A seed is formed from

  1.  Ovule
  2.  Embryo
  3.  Embryo sac
  4.  Ovary

Answer : A (Ovule)

Question 65: Perisperm differ from endosperm in

  1.  Having no reserve food
  2.  Being a diploid tissue
  3.  Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms
  4.  Being a haploid tissue

Answer : B (Being a diploid tissue)

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